Gram Panchayat Haminpur Pilani Jhunjhunu

Haminpur

Gram Panchayat

NTA CSIR Biology Question Paper

1. Main function of an enzyme is to

(A). increase the activation energy
(B). decrease the activation energy
(C). maintain constant activation energy
(D). none of these

Correct Answer: B

2. Plasma cells produce thousands of __________ that are released into the bloodstream

(A). antigens
(B). antibodies
(C). helper T cells
(D). virus fragments

Correct Answer: B

3. Which of the following components of a monochromator is the dispersing element?

(A). The collimating lens
(B). The entrance slit
(C). The diffraction grating
(D). None of these

Correct Answer: C

4. Restriction enzymes are used to cut

(A). Single stranded RNA
(B). Double stranded DNA
(C). Single stranded DNA
(D). Double stranded RNA

Correct Answer: B

5. Which of the following animals has a nervous system but no brain ?


(A). Amoeba 

(B). Hydra

(C). Cockroach 

(D). Earthworm




Correct Answer: B

6. The media which serve(s) as enrichment media for Salmonella is/are

(A). Tetrathionate broth
(B). Brilliant green tetrathionate broth
(C). Selenite-F broth
(D). All of these   

Correct Answer: D

7. T-lymphocyte is produced in



(A). Bone marrow
(B). Spleen
(C). Pancreas
(D). Thymus

Correct Answer: A

8. Four children belonging to the same parents have the following blood groups A, B, AB and O. Hence, the genotypes of the two parents are ______.

(A). Both parents are homozygous for ‘A’ group
(B). One parent is homozygous for ‘A’ and another parent is homozygous for ‘B’
(C). One parent is heterozygous for ‘A’ and another parent is heterozygous for ‘B
(D). Both parents are homozygous for ‘B’ group

Correct Answer: C

9. Which of the following is correct?

(A). All members of Sac fungus are also members of chemo-lithotrophic autotroph, but not all members of chemolithotrophic autotroph are members of Sac fungus.
(B). All members of chemolithotrophic autotroph are also members of Sac fungus, but not all members of Sac fungus are members of chemolithotrophic autotroph.
(C). All members of Sac fungus are members of chemolithotrophic autotroph, and all members of chemolithotrophic autotroph are members of Sac fungus.
(D). none of the above

Correct Answer: C

10. In which stage of cell division chromosomes are most condensed?



(A). Prophase
(B). Metaphase
(C). Anaphase
(D). Telophase

Correct Answer: B

11. Ascorbic acid acts as an

(A). reducing agent
(B). oxidizing agent
(C). oxidizing and reducing agent both
(D). none of the above

Correct Answer: A

12. Dihydroorotate dehydrogenase contains

(A). 4 flavins and 4 atoms of iron per molecule
(B). 2 flavins and 4 atoms of iron per molecule
(C). 2 flavins and 2 atoms of iron per molecule
(D). 4 flavins and 2 atoms of iron per molecule

Correct Answer: A

13. Which is the correct sequence of arrangement of types of W.B.C. in decreasing order in terms of number per mm3 of human

blood ?



(A). Eosinophils > Basophils > Neutrophils
(B). Basophils > Eosinophils > Neutrophils
(C). Neutrophils > Eosinophils > Basophils
(D). Eosinophils > Neutrophils > Basophils

Correct Answer: C

14. Which of the following is the most complete definition of fermentation?

(A). Oxidation of glucose with organic molecules serving as electron acceptors
(B). Complete catabolism of glucose to CO2 and HO2
(C). Production of energy by substrate-level phosphorylation
(D). Production of ethyl alcohol from glucose

Correct Answer: A

15. Which of the following is not an example of potent antitumer agents?

(A). Anthramycin
(B). Sibromycin
(C). Neothramycin
(D). Erythromycin

Correct Answer: D

16. What does the positive strand in double stranded RNA viruses stands for?

(A). rRNA
(B). tRNA
(C). mRNA
(D). None of these

Correct Answer: C

17. What is a protein produced by host cells infected by viruses?

(A). Interferon
(B). Histamine
(C). Antiserum
(D). Vaccine

Correct Answer: A

18. The blood which leaves the liver and moves to the heart has a higher concentration of

(A). Bile
(B). Glucose
(C). Urea
(D). Bile Pigments

Correct Answer: A

19. Which one of the following is NOT the function of insulin?

(A). Increase the oxidation of glucose in the cells.
(B). Increases the permeability of cell membrane to glucose.
(C). Initiates the formation of hepatic glycogen from excess of glucose.
(D). Initiates the conversion of glycogen to glucose.

Correct Answer: D

20. Which gas of the atmosphere absorbs ultra violate rays



(A). Nitrogen
(B). Ozone
(C). Helium
(D). Methane

 



Correct Answer: B

21. The flow of genetic material in microbial cells usually takes place from

(A). RNA through DNA to proteins
(B). proteins through RNA to DNA
(C). DNA through RNA to proteins
(D). none of these

Correct Answer: C

22. Which of the following techniques may be performed quantitatively to determine the number of bacteria of a particular type?

(A). Pour plate
(B). Spread plate
(C). Both (a) and (b)
(D). Streak plate technique

Correct Answer: C

23. Starvation proteins are produced by a culture during which of the following segments of the growth curve?

(A). Lag phase
(B). Exponential phase
(C). Stationary phase
(D). Death phase

Correct Answer: C

24. In Drosophila, sex determination depends on—

(A). Y-chromosome

(B). X-chromosome

(C). Autosome

(D). X-chromosome & autosome both




Correct Answer: D

25. The organism which obtain their energy from chemicals are designated as

(A). prototrophs
(B). chemotrophs
(C). organotrophs
(D). autotrophs 

Correct Answer: B

26. Cephalosporin an antibiotic closely related to penicillin in structure and antibiotic activity are produced by species of

(A). Cephalosporium
(B). Cephalospodium
(C). Pseudomonas
(D). Bacillus

Correct Answer: B

27. Which of the following bacteria can grow in alkaline pH?

(A). Shigella
(B). Lactobacilli
(C). Salmonella
(D). Vibrio cholerae

Correct Answer: D

28. Vitellogenesis occurs during the formation of

(A). Oogonial cell in the Graafian follicle
(B). Ootid in the fallopian tube
(C). Secondary Oocyte in the fallopian tube
(D). Primary oocyte in the Graafian follicle

Correct Answer: D

29. Grains spoiled by molds are a potential animal or human health hazard as well as a great economic loss. Which is/are the common species of molds in the spoilage of stored grains by molds?

(A). Aspergillus
(B). Penicillium
(C). Fusarium
(D). All of these

Correct Answer: D

30. RNA polymerase holoenzyme initiates transcription which involves

(A). recognition of the -10 sequence and -35 sequence
(B). recognition of the -10 sequence only
(C). recognition of the -35 sequence only
(D). none of the above

Correct Answer: A

31. The oxygen in hemoglobin and myoglobin is bound to

(A). the iron atom in the heme group
(B). the nitrogen atoms on the heme
(C). histidine residues in the protein
(D). lysine residues in the protein

Correct Answer: A

32. Identify the correct statement :

(A). The age of the plant can be determined by its height.
(B). Healing of damaged tissue is because of the activity of sclerenchyma cells.
(C). Grafting is difficult in monocot plants as they have scattered vascular bundles.
(D). Because of marked climatic variations, plants growing near the sea shore do not produce annual rings. 

Correct Answer: C

33. The released energy obtained by oxidation of glucose is stored as

(A). a concentration gradient across a membrane
(B). ADP
(C). ATP
(D). NAD+

Correct Answer: C

34. The precursor used for production of vitamin B12 by Streptomyces olivaceus is

(A). cobalt chloride
(B). cobalt sulphate
(C). calcium chloride
(D). calcium sulphate

Correct Answer: A

35. Genetic variations are

(A). temporary
(B). influenced by the environment
(C). stable
(D). not heritable

Correct Answer: C

36. The organism living at the bottom of water mass is called–

(A). Benthos
(B). Plankton
(C). Nekton
(D). Neuston

Correct Answer: A

37. Two-pigment system theory of photosynthesis was proposed by—

(A). Hill Emerson 

(B). Emerson

(C). Blackmann 

(D). Hatch and Slack




Correct Answer: B

38. The enzymes sucrase acts on —

(A). sucrose only
(B). sucrose and starch
(C). all disaccharides
(D). any organic monomer

Correct Answer: A

39. Examples for lateral meristems are

(A). Fascicular cambium and procambium
(B). Procambium and dermatogen
(C). Fascicular cambium and cork cambium
(D). Phellogen and procambium

Correct Answer: C

40. A single polar flagella is known as

(A). monotrichous
(B). lophotrichous
(C). amphitrichous
(D). none of these

Correct Answer: A

41. Which Laws of motion of Newton establish P = mf ?



(A). Third law
(B). First law
(C). Second law
(D). None of these

Correct Answer: D

42. Which Ig is produced in primary immune response?

 



(A). IgA


(B). IgE
(C). IgG
(D). IgM

 



Correct Answer: D

43. For most bacteria, the optimum pH for growth lies between

(A). 6.5-7.5
(B). 3.5-4.5
(C). 4.5-5.5
(D). 5.5-6.5

Correct Answer: A

44. Which of the following statements is true for enzymatically catalyzed reaction?

(A). The activation energy of the reaction is lowered so that a larger proportion of the substrate qualifies to overcome it
(B). Additional substrate molecules are energized to overcome the activation energy of the reaction
(C). The activation energy of the reaction is increased, thus decreasing the likelihood that any substrate molecules will overcome it
(D). The activation energy of the reaction is lowered so that a fewer substrate molecules can overcome it

Correct Answer: A

45. The DNA that actually codes for a protein's primary structure in eukaryotes is

(A). the entire gene
(B). portions of the gene called introns
(C). portions of the gene called exons
(D). the promoter

Correct Answer: C

46. The Selaginella shows-

(A). Large and small leaves arranged spirally
(B). All leaves large
(C). All leaves small
(D). All of these





Correct Answer: A

47. The strain C. glutamicum can be used for the production of

(A). L-ornithine
(B). L-phenylalanine
(C). L-glutamine
(D). all of these

Correct Answer: D

48. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(A). Hemoglobin and myoglobin are the two oxygen binding proteins
(B). Hemoglobin transports O2 in the blood
(C). Myoglobin stores O2 in muscles
(D). None of the above

Correct Answer: D

49. Fluorescent treponemal antibody test is an example of

(A). indirect immunofluorescence
(B). direct immunofluorescence
(C). both (a) and (b)
(D). none of these

Correct Answer: A

50. Number of chromosomes in Down's syndrome is

(A). 46
(B). 47
(C). 48
(D). 49

Correct Answer: B

51. The precursor of Penicillin G is

(A). phenoxy acetic acid
(B). phenyl acetic acid
(C). hydroxy phenyl acetic acid
(D). none of these

Correct Answer: B

52. The RNA sarcoma viruses, the most strongly transforming viruses may transform which of the following cells in a culture?

(A). fibroblasts
(B). myoblasts
(C). iris epithelial
(D). all of these

Correct Answer: D

53. How do you differentiate a frog from a toad?

(A). Frog has no exoskeleton but toad has scales
(B). Frog respires through lungs but toad respires through skin
(C). Frog has a tail but toad has no tail
(D). Frog has no parotid glands but toad has a pair of parotid glands

Correct Answer: D

54. The location where the bacterial chromosome concentrates is called

(A). nucleus
(B). nuclein
(C). nucleoid
(D). nucleose

Correct Answer: C

55. The peptide, Val-Lys-Glu-Met-Ser-Trp-Arg-Ala, was digested with cyanogen bromide (CNBr) to produce:

(A). Val-Lys + Glu-Met-Ser + Trp-Arg-Ala
(B). Val-Lys-Glu-Met-Ser-Trp + Arg-Ala
(C). Val-Lys-Glu-Met + Ser-Trp-Arg-Ala
(D). Val-Lys-Glu + Met-Ser-Trp-Arg-Ala

Correct Answer: C

56. Various bacterial species can be subdivided into

(A). subspecies
(B). biovarieties
(C). serovarieties
(D). all of these

Correct Answer: D

57. Which of the following methods is most likely to be quantitative?

(A). Dilution and plating
(B). Gram staining
(C). Wet mount
(D). None of these

Correct Answer: A

58. Which among the following is correct definition of Bacteriophage?


(A). A Bacteria that destroys Virus
(B). A Virus that destroys Bacteria
(C). A Bacteria that destroys another bacteria
(D). A Bacteria that destroys Fungi



Correct Answer: B

59. Choose the correct non-protein amino acid



(A). Hydroxyproline
(B). hydroxylysine
(C). cystine
(D). ã amino butyric acid

 



Correct Answer: D

60. Why must the voltage supplied to a tungsten lamp be very stable?

(A). Because if it wasn't, the lamp would bum out
(B). Because amount of energy the lamp emits is proportional to the fourth power of the operating voltage
(C). Because the lamp will only function at a specific voltage
(D). All of the above

Correct Answer: B

61. The Shine-Dalgarno sequence is

(A). trailer sequence
(B). a stop codon
(C). the reading frame of a gene
(D). a short sequence that acts as a ribosomal binding site

Correct Answer: D

62. Example of water soluble plant pigment is

(A). .Chlorophyll-a
(B). .Chlorophyll-b
(C). .Anthocyanin
(D). .Xanthophyll

Correct Answer: C

63. Most important species of vinegar bacteria causing sliminess is

(A). Acetobacter aceti
(B). Saccharomyces carlsbergiensis
(C). Lactobacillus lactis
(D). None of the above

Correct Answer: A

64. The scientific name of the moth which produce tasar is

(A). Bombyx mori
(B). Antheraea mylitta
(C). Antheraea assamensis
(D). Philosomia ricini

Correct Answer: B

65. ATP is from which general category of molecules?

(A). Polysaccharides
(B). Proteins
(C). Nucleotides
(D). Amino acids

Correct Answer: C

66. Where the acyl-CoA formed in the cytosol is transported for oxidation?

(A). Mitochondrial matrix
(B). Microsomes
(C). Endoplasmic reticulum
(D). Remains in cytosol

Correct Answer: A

67. Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, needed for the conversion of Pyruvic acid to Acetyl
CO-A is located in _______.


(A). Intermembranal space of mitochondria

(B). Matrix of mitochondria

(C). Cytoplasm

(D). Grana of chloroplast



Correct Answer: B

68. The enzymes that catalyze the reactions of the Krebs cycle are found in which subcellular organelle of eukaryotes?

(A). Mitochondrion
(B). Chloroplast
(C). Ribosome
(D). Endoplasmic reticulum

Correct Answer: A

69. Cytoplast (somatic cell hybridization) is the process in which

(A). two protoplast along with their nuclei fuse
(B). a normal protoplast along with an enucleated protoplast fuse
(C). both (a) and (b)
(D). two enucleated protoplasts fuse

Correct Answer: C

70. Which of the following transport bacterial DNA to other bacteria via bacteriophages?

(A). Conjugation
(B). Transduction
(C). Transformation
(D). Translation

Correct Answer: B

71. When a fresh water protozoan is placed in marine water________.

(A). the contractile vacuole disappears
(B). the contractile vacuole increases in size
(C). a number of contractile vacuoles appear
(D). the contractile vacuole remains unchanged

Correct Answer: A

72. Which one of the following diseases is caused by Nosema bombycis in mulberry silkworm?


(A). Pebrine

(B). Muscadine

(C). Flacherie

(D). Grasserie

 



Correct Answer: A

73. Why vortexing is undesirable in the agitation of biological systems?

(A). The collision between the cells, impeller and air bubbles will lead to cell damage
(B). Poor mixing despite the use of high stirrer speeds
(C). Mixing will not be in the turbulent region
(D). All of the above

Correct Answer: D

74. What is the pH of the medium when sucrose is used as substrate for the production of citric acid?

(A). 3
(B). 4
(C). 5
(D). 6

Correct Answer: A

75. The presence of viable non-spore forming bacteria in heat process canned foods indicates leakage of the container. Which of the following is responsible for the spoilage of leaky cans?

(A). Plant equipment
(B). Cooling water
(C). Highly acidic medium
(D). High sugar content

Correct Answer: B

76. Generally artificial Pacemaker consists of one battery made up of



(A). Nickel
(B). Dry Cadmium
(C). Photo Sensitive Material
(D). Lithium

 



Correct Answer: D

77. Rho-dependent termination of transcription in E. coli

(A). requires ATP
(B). requires about 50 nucleotides of uncomplexed mRNA
(C). both (a) and (b)
(D). removes mRNA and holoenzyme from the DNA

Correct Answer: C

78. During which of the following process a new copy of a DNA molecule is precisely synthesized?

(A). Trasformation
(B). Transcription
(C). Translation
(D). Replication

Correct Answer: D

79. When a substance is added to a solid medium which inhibits the growth of unwanted bacteria but permits the growth of wanted bacteria, it is known as

(A). differential medium
(B). enriched medium
(C). enrichment medium
(D). selective medium

Correct Answer: D

80. Which of the following antigenic types of hepatitis B virus is present in the envelope?

(A). HbsAg
(B). HBcAg
(C). HBeAg
(D). HBxAg

Correct Answer: A

81. In competitive inhibition a factor is obtained from the measurement of

(A). Vmax
(B). KM
(C). Y-intercept in Lineweaver-Burk Plot
(D). None of these

Correct Answer: B

82. The ability of Vibrio fischeri to produce bioluminescence chemicals only when a certain population density has been reached is an example of

(A). Liebig's law of the minimum
(B). Shelford's law of tolerance
(C). quorum sensing
(D). Heisenberg's principle of uncertainty

Correct Answer: C

83. The resonance structures that can be drawn for the peptide bond indicate that the peptide bond

(A). is stronger than an ordinary single bond
(B). has partial double bond character
(C). both (a) and (b)
(D). is still not completely understood

Correct Answer: C

84. Which of the following hormones is responsible for the emotional states such as fear, anger and tension and a rise in blood pressure and heart rate?

(A). Thyroxine
(B). Somatotrophin
(C). Adrenaline
(D). Oxytocin

Correct Answer: C

85. Which of the following methods is most likely to be quantitative?

(A). Dilution and plating
(B). Gram staining
(C). Wet mount
(D). None of these

Correct Answer: A

86. Xylose lysine deoxycholate (XLD) agar is better selective medium than the deoxycholate citrate agar (DCA) because

(A). it is selective
(B). it imparts better growth
(C). it contains high salt concentration
(D). it is less inhibitory to S. Dysentriae and S. flexneri

Correct Answer: D

87. How many amino acids will be encoded by 5' GAU GGU UGA UGU 3' sequence?

(A). One
(B). Two
(C). Three
(D). Four

Correct Answer: B

88. SO2 pollution is indicated by



(A). Desmodium (Grasses)
(B). Sphagnum (Mosses)
(C). Usnea (Lichens)
(D). Cucurbita (Climbers)

Correct Answer: C

89. Water molds form flagellated spores are called

(A). dinoflagellates
(B). fruiting bodies
(C). zoospores
(D). trichocysts

Correct Answer: C

90. Random amplified polymorphic DNA (RAPD) is a method that

(A). stimulate production of sense RNA to compensate
(B). activate the expression of all genes in a biochemical pathway
(C). eliminate the expression of all genes in a biochemical pathway
(D). reveals intra-specific variation and diversity between species

Correct Answer: D

91. lf the person shows the production of interferons in his body, chances are that he is suffering from


(A). Malaria

(B). Measles

(C). Tetanus

(D). Anthrax



Correct Answer: B

92. Self reactive antibodies are not found in significant concentration in normal serum because

(A). it is impossible to generate a self-reactive antibody
(B). self reactive B cells are killed by CD8 T cells
(C). B cells that are stimulated via their surface bound antibody in the absence of T cell help to commit suicide
(D). self reactive B cells switch to IgA which is all secreted and not present in serum

Correct Answer: C

93. Which of the following is not true of protozoa?

(A). Lack cell wall
(B). Produce no sporebearing structures
(C). Comprise the microbial population known as phytoplankton
(D). Form active feeding forms called trophozoites

Correct Answer: C

94. The agent representing an isolate of hepatitis G virus is

(A). GBA-A
(B). GBV-B
(C). GBV-C
(D). none of these

Correct Answer: C

95. The predominant lipid substance found in the viral envelope is

(A). phospholipids
(B). glycolipids
(C). neutral fat
(D). all of these

Correct Answer: A

96. __________ produce zygospores.

(A). Slime molds
(B). Dimorphic fungi
(C). Club fungi
(D). Black bread molds

Correct Answer: D

97. What is the proportion of glycine residues in collagenous regions?

(A). One-fourth
(B). One-third
(C). Half
(D). One-tenth

Correct Answer: B

98. Cow milk is rich source of which vitamin?



(A). B
(B). A
(C). D
(D). C

Correct Answer: C

99. Gastrula has a pore which is known as _______.

(A). Gonophore
(B). Blastopore
(C). Oospore
(D). Zoospore

Correct Answer: B

100. Which of the common features are shared between serine and aspartate proteases?

(A). Both require water to complete the catalytic cycle
(B). Both use a base to activate the nucleophile
(C). Both show specificity for certain amino acid sequences
(D). All of the above

Correct Answer: D

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