SSC Solved Question Paper haminpur.com
1. Directions (1-10): Select the related word/letter/ figure/number from the given alternatives.
Mechanic : Spanner : : Carpenter : ?
(A). Tree
(B). Wood
(C). Furniture
(D). Saw
Right Answer: D
2. Directions (1-10): Select the related word/letter/ figure/number from the given alternatives.
Fish : Gills : : Min : ?
(A). Ears
(B). Eyes
(C). Lungs
(D). Nose
Right Answer: D
3. Directions (1-10): Select the related word/letter/ figure/number from
the given alternatives.
Grain : Warehouse : : Water : ?
(A). Drink
(B). Dam
(C). Canal
(D). River
Right Answer: B
4. Directions (1-10): Select the related word/letter/ figure/number
from the given alternatives.
AZBY : CXDW : : HSIR : ?
(A). JQKP
(B). KPLO
(C). YBXC
(D). TGSH
Right Answer: A
5. Directions (1-10): Select the related word/letter/ figure/number
from the given alternatives.
DMVE : ? : : HQZI : JSBK
(A). GOXF
(B). FOXG
(C). GOXG
(D). FNWG
Right Answer: B
6. Directions (1-10): Select the related word/letter/ figure/number
from the given alternatives.
Question Figures :
(A).
(B).
(C).
(D).
Right Answer: B
7. Directions (1-10): Select the related word/letter/ figure/number
from the given alternatives.
Question Figures :
(A).
(B).
(C).
(D).
Right Answer: B
8. Directions (1-10): Select the related word/letter/ figure/number
from the given alternatives.
Question Figures :
(A).
(B).
(C).
(D).
Right Answer: C
9. Directions (1-10): Select the related word/letter/ figure/number
from the given alternatives.
16 : 49 : : 100 : ?
(A). 85
(B). 121
(C). 144
(D). 169
Right Answer: D
10. Directions (1-10): Select the related word/letter/ figure/number
from the given alternatives.
15 : 220 : : 100 : ?
(A). 600
(B). 620
(C). 625
(D). 650
Right Answer: A
11. Directions (11-19): Select the one which is different from the other three responses.
(A). Son
(B). Niece
(C). Grandson
(D). Grand-daughter
Right Answer: B
12. Directions (11-19): Select the one which is different from the other three responses.
(A). January
(B). February
(C). July
(D). December
Right Answer: B
13. Directions (11-19): Select the one which is different from the other three responses.
(A). Intelligent
(B). Precis
(C). Stupid
(D). Comprehensive
Right Answer: C
14. Directions (11-19): Select the one which is different from the other three responses.
(A). ZXVT
(B). RPNL
(C). OMKI
(D). HFDC
Right Answer: D
15. Directions (11-19): Select the one which is different from the other three responses.
(A). MONJK
(B). ACAZV
(C). GMRGS
(D). METEI
Right Answer: A
16. Directions (11-19): Select the one which is different from the other three responses.
(A). 19
(B). 25
(C). 16
(D). 49
Right Answer: A
17. Directions (11-19): Select the one which is different from the other three responses.
(A). 26, 119
(B). 35, 513
(C). 10, 27
(D). 17, 65
Right Answer: C
18. Directions (11-19): Select the one which is different from the other three responses.
(A).
(B).
(C).
(D).
Right Answer: D
19. Directions (11-19): Select the one which is different from the other three responses.
(A). 6 – 13 – 24
(B). 12 – 19 – 30
(C). 18 – 25 – 34
(D). 24 – 31 – 42
Right Answer: C
20. A series of figures is given which can be grouped into classes. Select the group into which the figures can be classified from the given responses:
(A). 3,5,1; 1,4,6; 7,8,9,
(B). 3,4,1; 5,7,9; 2,8,6
(C). 1,4,9; 3,6,8; 2,5,7
(D). 8,5,4; 3,2,1; 7,6,9
Right Answer: C
21. Directions (21-22): In each of the following questions, arrange the following words in a meaningful order:
1. Neonate 2. Child
3. Infant 4. Embryo
(A). 1, 3, 2, 4
(B). 4, 1, 3, 2
(C). 4, 3, 2, 1
(D). 3, 1, 4, 2
Right Answer: B
22. Directions (21-22): In each of the following questions, arrange the following words in a meaningful order:
1. Plastering 2. Painting
3. Foundation 4. Walls
5. Ceiling
(A). 3, 4, 1, 2, 5
(B). 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(C). 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
(D). 3, 4, 5, 1, 2
Right Answer: B
23. Directions (23-30): A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given one that will complete
the series.
Z3a, W5a, T8g, Q12j, ?
(A). M16n
(B). N17m
(C). N16k
(D). K17n
Right Answer: B
24. Directions (23-30): A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given one that will complete
the series.
DGJ, FLN, HKN, JMP, ?
(A). LON
(B). LOR
(C). LOQ
(D). LOM
Right Answer: B
25. Directions (23-30): A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given one that will complete
the series.
321, 301, ?, 181, 21
(A). 281
(B). 161
(C). 241
(D). 261
Right Answer: D
26. Directions (23-30): A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given one that will complete
the series.
2816, ?, 176, 44, 11
(A). 704
(B). 1408
(C). 352
(D). 2640
Right Answer: A
27. Directions (23-30): A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given one that will complete the series.
Question Figures :
(A).
(B).
(C).
(D).
Right Answer: D
28. Directions (23-30): A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given one that will complete the series.
Question Figures :
(A).
(B).
(C).
(D).
Right Answer: A
29. Directions (23-30): A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given one that will complete the series.
Question Figures :
(A).
(B).
(C).
(D).
Right Answer: D
30. Directions (23-30): A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given one that will complete the series.
(A).
(B).
(C).
(D).
Right Answer: B
31. In a row of children, Harish is eleventh from the left and Mangesh is seventeenth from the right. When they exchange their places, Harish will be thirteenth from the left. Which of the following will be the new position of Mangesh from the right?
(A). Eleventh
(B). Twenty-first
(C). Nineteenth
(D). Twenty-ninth
Right Answer: C
32. A is the son of B, while B and C are sisters to one another. E is the mother of C. If D is the son of E, which of the following statements is correct?
(A). D is the maternal uncle of A
(B). E is the brother of B
(C). D is the cousin of A
(D). B and D are brothers
Right Answer: A
33. Question Figures :
(A).
(B).
(C).
(D).
Right Answer: D
34. If BOMBAY is coded as FSQFEC, which word could be coded as QCWSVI?
(A). MANDYA
(B). MANDAL
(C). MYSORE
(D). MYSOER
Right Answer: C
35. If D = 4 and READ is coded as 7, then what is HEAR coded as?
(A). 32
(B). 33
(C). 7
(D). 8
Right Answer: D
36. Some equations are solved on the basis of a certain system. On the same basis, find out the correct answer from amongst the four alternatives for the unsolved equation:
72 × 96 = 6927
58 × 87 = 7885
79 × 86 = ?
(A). 7689
(B). 8976
(C). 6897
(D). 6978
Right Answer: C
37. If ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘–‘ means ‘+’, ‘×’ means ‘–’, ‘+’ means ‘÷’, then what will be the value of the following?
20 + 4 × 6 – 5 = ?
(A). 28
(B). 32
(C). 34
(D). 36
Right Answer: C
38. Directions (38-40): Select the missing number from the given
responses.
(A). 11
(B). 12
(C). 14
(D). 18
Right Answer: B
39. Directions (38-40): Select the missing number from the given
responses.
144 (132) 121
64 (?) 100
(A). 70
(B). 80
(C). 85
(D). 90
Right Answer: B
40. Directions (38-40): Select the missing number from the given
responses.
(A). 36
(B). 33
(C). 45
(D). 60
Right Answer: D
41. In an imaginary mathematical operation ‘+’ means multiplication, ‘×’ means subtraction, ‘÷’ means addition and ‘–’ means division. All other rules in mathematical operation are the same as in the existing system. Which one of the following gives the result of
175 – 25 ÷ 5 + 20 x 3 + 10 ?
(A). 160
(B). 2370
(C). 77
(D). 240
Right Answer: C
42. Rana travels 10km North, turns left and travels 4 km and then again turns right and covers another 5 km. He then turns to right—hand side and travels another 4 km. How far is the from the point of starting of his journey?
(A). 5 km
(B). 4 km
(C). 15 km
(D). 10 km
Right Answer: C
43. Four position of a dice are given below. Identity the number at the bottom when top’s number is 6:
(A). 5
(B). 1
(C). 3
(D). 4
Right Answer: B
44. Among the four answer figures, which figure can be formed from the cut pieces given the question figure?
Question Figures :
(A).
(B).
(C).
(D).
Right Answer: D
45. The diagram gives the number of candidates who failed in Chemistry, Electronics and English in different tests. The total number of candidates appeared was 600. What is the percentage of candidates who failed in at least two subjects?
(A). 12.5
(B). 1.25
(C). 12.05
(D). 12
Right Answer: A
46. Find out which of the diagrams as given in the alternatives correctly represents the relationship among Employers, Doctors and Women
(A).
(B).
(C).
(D).
Right Answer: C
47. In this question, a statement is give followed by four alternative inferences. Select the one which is most appropriate.
Statement: A large number of language specialists write novels. Inferences:
(A). Some language specialists do not write novels
(B). A novelist need not be a language specialist
(C). Language specialty is highly helpful to write novels
(D). All novelists are language specialists
Right Answer: C
48. In this question, a statement is given followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow(s) from the given statement.
Statement: Industries destroy the natural resources.
Conclusions:
I. All natural resources are destroyed by industries.
II. No industries, no environmental pollution.
(A). Only I follows
(B). Only II follows
(C). Neither I nor II follows
(D). Both I and II follow
Right Answer: C
49. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?
Question Figures :
(A).
(B).
(C).
(D).
Right Answer: C
50. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/ embedded?
Question Figure:
(A).
(B).
(C).
(D).
Right Answer: A
51. Which of the following is not the source of the revenue of central Government?
(A). Income Tax
(B). Corporate Tax
(C). Agricultural Income Tax
(D). Excise Duty
Right Answer: C
52. ‘Operation Flood’ is associated with–
(A). milk production
(B). wheat production
(C). flood control
(D). water harvesting
Right Answer: A
53. Who has the sole right to issue paper currency in India?
(A). The Government of India
(B). The Finance Commission
(C). The Reserve Bank of India
(D). The Central Bank of India
Right Answer: C
54. A fall in demand or rise in supply of a commodity-
(A). increase the price of that commodity
(B). decrease the price of that commodity
(C). neutralises the changes in the price
(D). determines the price elasticity
Right Answer: B
55. Planning Commission of India was established in
(A). 1947
(B). 1950
(C). 1951
(D). 1949
Right Answer: B
56. How many types of emergencies are envisaged by the Constitution?
(A). 1
(B). 2
(C). 3
(D). 4
Right Answer: C
57. Who calls the Joint Session of the two Houses of the Parliament?
(A). The President
(B). The Prime Minister
(C). The Lok Sabha Speaker
(D). The Vice-President
Right Answer: A
58. In which year, Gandhiji established Sabarmati Ashram in Gujarat?
(A). 1916
(B). 1917
(C). 1918
(D). 1929
Right Answer: B
59. No confidence Motion against the Union Council of Minister can be initiated
(A). in the Rajya Sabha only
(B). in the Lok Sabha only
(C). in the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(D). in the State Assemblies
Right Answer: B
60. Which constitutional Amendment deleted the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights?
(A). 42nd Amendment
(B). 62nd Amendment
(C). 44th Amendment
(D). 43rd Amendment
Right Answer: C
61. Most of the Chola temples were dedicated to
(A). Vishnu
(B). Shiva
(C). Brahma
(D). Durga
Right Answer: B
62. Where was the First Session of Indian National Congress held?
(A). Bombay
(B). Madras
(C). Calcutta
(D). Delhi
Right Answer: A
63. In the Gupta period, the largest number of coins were issued in
(A). gold
(B). silver
(C). copper
(D). iron
Right Answer: A
64. The tax which the kings used to collect from the people in the Vedic period was called-
(A). Bali
(B). Vidatha
(C). Varman
(D). Kara
Right Answer: A
65. Buddha preached his first sermon at-
(A). Gaya
(B). Sarnath
(C). Pataliputra
(D). Vaishali
Right Answer: B
66. Which one of the following is not the result of underground water action?
(A). Stalactites
(B). Stalagmites
(C). Sinkholes
(D). Fiords
Right Answer: D
67. Grassland is called “pampas” in-
(A). Africa
(B). South America
(C). the United Kingdom
(D). the USA
Right Answer: B
68. The coastal part of water bodies of the oceans which is structurally part of the mainland of the continents is called
(A). isthumus
(B). oceanic ridge
(C). continental shelf
(D). continental slope
Right Answer: C
69. Anemometer is used to measure
(A). wind direction
(B). wind velocity
(C). pressure gradient
(D). wind speed and time
Right Answer: B
70. Marina Trench is found in
(A). Atlantic Ocean
(B). Pacific Ocean
(C). Indian Ocean
(D). Arctic Ocean
Right Answer: B
71. Which cells in our body have the least regenerative power?
(A). Brain cells
(B). Muscle cells
(C). Bone cells
(D). Liver cells
Right Answer: A
72. A potato tuber has been cut into two halves. A few drops of iodine solution are placed on the cut surface of one of the halves. What colour change will be noticed?
(A). From brow to blue-black
(B). From brown to orange-red
(C). From blue to pink
(D). From pink to blue-green
Right Answer: A
73. How many values does a human heart have?
(A). Four
(B). Three
(C). Two
(D). One
Right Answer: C
74. The cells which are responsible for the production of antibodies are
(A). red blood cells
(B). neutrophils
(C). lymphocytes
(D). platelets
Right Answer: C
75. The source of the enzyme, diastase is
(A). salivary gland
(B). stomach
(C). liver
(D). pancreas
Right Answer: A
76. Mycoplasma is associated with a disease that affects the organs of
(A). respiration
(B). excretion
(C). reproduction
(D). digestion
Right Answer: A
77. Which one of the following has the highest value of specific heat?
(A). Glass
(B). Copper
(C). Lead
(D). Water
Right Answer: D
78. The device used for locating submerged objects under sea is.
(A). sonar
(B). radar
(C). laser
(D). maser
Right Answer: A
79. The metal whose electrical conductivity is more, is
(A). copper
(B). aluminum
(C). silver
(D). lead
Right Answer: C
80. What happens to a liquid, when the vapour pressure equals the atmospheric pressure?
(A). The liquid cools
(B). The liquid boils
(C). No change
(D). The liquid evaporates
Right Answer: B
81. Seaweeds are important source of
(A). fluorine
(B). chlorine
(C). bromine
(D). iodine
Right Answer: D
82. In nuclear reactor, heavy water is used as
(A). coolant
(B). fuel
(C). moderator
(D). atomic smasher
Right Answer: C
83. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(A). Tetanus-BCG
(B). Tuberculosis-ATS
(C). Malaria-Chloroquin
(D). Scurvy-Thiamin
Right Answer: C
84. Tear gas used by the police to disperse the mob contains
(A). carbon dioxide
(B). chlorine
(C). ammonia
(D). hydrogen sulphide
Right Answer: B
85. Correct expansion of the term ‘http’ in Internet address is
(A). higher text transfer protocol
(B). higher transfer text protocol
(C). hybrid text transfer protocol
(D). hypertext transfer protocol
Right Answer: D
86. Which of the following is a Navaratna PSE?
(A). Steel Authority of India Ltd.
(B). MMTC Ltd.
(C). National Aluminum Company Ltd.
(D). Oil India Ltd.
Right Answer: D
87. ‘World AIDS Day’ is observed on
(A). 1st January
(B). 1st April
(C). 1st September
(D). 1st December
Right Answer: D
88. Who was (is) the first lady recipient of Dada Saheb Phalke Award?
(A). Nargis Dutt
(B). Uma Devi
(C). Devika Rani
(D). Sulochana
Right Answer: C
89. Out of the following artists, who has written the book, Meandering pastures of Memories?
(A). Shovana Narayan
(B). Saroja Vaidyanathan
(C). Yamini krishnamoorthy
(D). Geeta Chandran
Right Answer: A
90. Out of the following Indian States, which State does not have any maritime boundary?
(A). Gujarat
(B). Goa
(C). Rajasthan
(D). Maharashtra
Right Answer: C
91. With which brand of product, is the slogan ‘Just do it’ associated?
(A). Bata
(B). Power
(C). Wood land
(D). Nike
Right Answer: D
92. With which of the following books, is Dr. S. Radhakrishnan associated?
{A} An Idealist View of Life
{B} Bhagavad Gita
{C} Conquest of self
{D} Hindu View of Life
(A). A, B, and C only
(B). B, C and D only
(C). A, C and D only
(D). A, B and D only
Right Answer: D
93. The Headquarters of International Court of Justice is located in
(A). Paris (France)
(B). Geneva (Switzerland)
(C). New York (USA)
(D). The Hague (Netherlands)
Right Answer: D
94. ‘Subroto Cup’ is associated with which game/sports?
(A). Hockey
(B). Football
(C). Basketball
(D). Badminton
Right Answer: B
95. The first talkie film in India was
(A). Raja Harishchandra
(B). Alam Ara
(C). Chandida
(D). Jhansi Ki Rani
Right Answer: B
96. Who holds the record for scoring the highest number of runs (individuals) in One-day Cricket World Cup Tournaments?
(A). S. Gnaguly
(B). S. Tendulkar
(C). B. Lara
(D). G. Kirsten
Right Answer: C
97. Which is the field in which Ustad Bismillah Khan has distinguished himself?
(A). Sitar
(B). Guitar
(C). Shehnai
(D). Hindustani Music (Classical-Vocal)
Right Answer: C
98. Where is the Baba Imambara located?
(A). Agra
(B). Lucknow
(C). Patna
(D). Allahabad
Right Answer: B
99. What does the open market operation of the RBI mean?
(A). Buying and selling shares
(B). Auctioning of foreign exchange
(C). Trading is securities
(D). Transaction in gold
Right Answer: C
100. ‘Consumer Day’ is celebrated every year on
(A). 1st April
(B). 23rd April
(C). 15th March
(D). 5th December
Right Answer: C
101. Directions (101-105): In the following questions, some of the
sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a
sentence has an error. The number of that part is your answer. If there is no error, your answer (4) i.e. No error.
(A). They agreed
(B). to repair the damage
(C). freely of charge
(D). No error
Right Answer: C
102. Directions (101-105): In the following questions, some of the
sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a
sentence has an error. The number of that part is your answer. If
there is no error, your answer (4) i.e. No error.
(A). When Darun heard the news that his father had been hospitalised
(B). he cancelled his trip
(C). and returned back to his village
(D). No error
Right Answer: C
103. Directions (101-105): In the following questions, some of the
sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a
sentence has an error. The number of that part is your answer. If there is no error, your answer (4) i.e. No error.
(A). The Governing Board
(B). comprises of
(C). several distinguished personalities
(D). No error
Right Answer: B
104. Directions (101-105): In the following questions, some of the
sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a
sentence has an error. The number of that part is your answer. If there is no error, your answer (4) i.e. No error.
(A). My uncle does not spend
(B). so much money on that house
(C). unless he thinks of moving in soon
(D). No error
Right Answer: A
105. Directions (101-105): In the following questions, some of the
sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a
sentence has an error. The number of that part is your answer. If there is no error, your answer (4) i.e. No error.
(A). Neither my sister nor my brother
(B). are interested
(C). in moving to another house
(D). No error
Right Answer: D
106. Directions (106-110): In the following sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with the appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.
If I ____ a doctor, I would serve the poor.
(A). am
(B). had been
(C). were
(D). was
Right Answer: C
107. Directions (106-110): In the following sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with the appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.
He is weak ____ he does a lot of work.
(A). and
(B). yet
(C). because
(D). so
Right Answer: B
108. Directions (106-110): In the following sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with the appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.
Mahesh showed an ____ for sports at a very early stage.
(A). attitude
(B). aptitude
(C). imagination
(D). intuition
Right Answer: B
109. Directions (106-110): In the following sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with the appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.
For ____ sake don’t tell it to others.
(A). haven
(B). heaven
(C). heavens
(D). heven’s
Right Answer: D
110. Directions (106-110): In the following sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with the appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.
Napoleon’s army ____ to the Russian soldiers without any flight.
(A). evaded
(B). decimated
(C). capitulated
(D). cordoned
Right Answer: C
111. Directions (111-115): In the following questions, out of the four
alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the
given word.
Supersede
(A). suspend
(B). enforce
(C). repeal
(D). set aside
Right Answer: C
112. Directions (111-115): In the following questions, out of the four
alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the
given word.
Perilous
(A). monstrous
(B). dangerous
(C). cautious
(D). dubious
Right Answer: B
113. Directions (111-115): In the following questions, out of the four
alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the
given word.
Affluence
(A). richness
(B). difficulty
(C). influence
(D). awkwardness
Right Answer: A
114. Directions (111-115): In the following questions, out of the four
alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the
given word.
Bifurcated
(A). dissected into pieces
(B). divided into two
(C). thoroughly evaluate
(D). verbally abused
Right Answer: B
115. Directions (111-115): In the following questions, out of the four
alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the
given word.
Consensus
(A). unanimity
(B). equanimity
(C). magnanimity
(D). proximity
Right Answer: A
116. Directions (116-120): In the following questions, choose the word
opposite in meaning to the given word.
Salient
(A). correct
(B). insignificant
(C). central
(D). convenient
Right Answer: A
117. Directions (116-120): In the following questions, choose the word
opposite in meaning to the given word.
Dormant
(A). strong
(B). reveal
(C). disguise
(D). pretended
Right Answer: D
118. Directions (116-120): In the following questions, choose the word
opposite in meaning to the given word.
Camouflage
(A). hide
(B). reveal
(C). disguise
(D). pretended
Right Answer: B
119. Directions (116-120): In the following questions, choose the word
opposite in meaning to the given word.
Latent
(A). primitive
(B). evident
(C). potent
(D). talented
Right Answer: D
120. Directions (116-120): In the following questions, choose the word
opposite in meaning to the given word.
Ample
(A). meagre
(B). quantitative
(C). sufficient
(D). tasty
Right Answer: A
121. Directions (121-125): In the following questions, four alternative are
given for the idiom/phrase underlined in the sentence. Choose the
alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
He is always praised for his gift of the gab.
(A). being lucky
(B). getting something free
(C). talent for speaking
(D). great skill
Right Answer: C
122. Directions (121-125): In the following questions, four alternative are
given for the idiom/phrase underlined in the sentence. Choose the
alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
The teacher’s extra hours of coaching went a long way in improving the student’s performance.
(A). took great effort
(B). spent a lot of time
(C). extended widely
(D). helped considerably
Right Answer: D
123. Directions (121-125): In the following questions, four alternative are
given for the idiom/phrase underlined in the sentence. Choose the
alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
The administration found it difficult to cope with the striking employees.
(A). move
(B). compromise
(C). handle
(D). subdue
Right Answer: C
124. Directions (121-125): In the following questions, four alternative are
given for the idiom/phrase underlined in the sentence. Choose the
alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
The criminal was pardoned at the eleventh hour just as the was about to be hanged.
(A). at eleven o’clock
(B). suddenly
(C). at the very last moment
(D). at midnight
Right Answer: C
125. Directions (121-125): In the following questions, four alternative are
given for the idiom/phrase underlined in the sentence. Choose the
alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
He spoke well though it was his maiden speech.
(A). long speech
(B). brief speech
(C). first speech
(D). emotional speech
Right Answer: C
126. Directions (126-130): In the following questions, apart of the
sentences is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the
underlined part at (1), (2) and (3), which may improve the sentence.
Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed,
your answer is (4).
He was released from the hospital yesterday
(A). let out
(B). discharged
(C). dismissed
(D). No improvement
Right Answer: B
127. Directions (126-130): In the following questions, apart of the
sentences is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the
underlined part at (1), (2) and (3), which may improve the sentence.
Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed,
your answer is (4).
The colours softened as the sum went down.
(A). brightened
(B). deepened
(C). mellowed
(D). No improvement
Right Answer: B
128. Directions (126-130): In the following questions, apart of the
sentences is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the
underlined part at (1), (2) and (3), which may improve the sentence.
Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed,
your answer is (4).
The new manager is soft – spoken and is considerable to all.
(A). conceited
(B). considerate
(C). constricted
(D). No improvement
Right Answer: B
129. Directions (126-130): In the following questions, apart of the
sentences is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the
underlined part at (1), (2) and (3), which may improve the sentence.
Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed,
your answer is (4).
He hanged his portrait is the main hall.
(A). hang
(B). hung
(C). had hanged
(D). No improvement
Right Answer: B
130. Directions (126-130): In the following questions, apart of the
sentences is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the
underlined part at (1), (2) and (3), which may improve the sentence.
Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed,
your answer is (4).
We were unable to call on you because of the rains.
(A). help
(B). invite
(C). visit
(D). No improvement
Right Answer: B
131. Directions (131-135): In the following questions, a group of four
alternatives is given. Choose the one which can be substituted for the
given words/ sentences.
To feel or express disapproval of something or someone.
(A). declare
(B). deprive
(C). depreciate
(D). deprecate
Right Answer: D
132. Directions (131-135): In the following questions, a group of four
alternatives is given. Choose the one which can be substituted for the
given words/ sentences.
Handwriting that cannot be read
(A). ineligible
(B). decipher
(C). ugly
(D). illegible
Right Answer: D
133. Directions (131-135): In the following questions, a group of four
alternatives is given. Choose the one which can be substituted for the
given words/ sentences.
Animals that can live on land and in water
(A). anthropoids
(B). aquatics
(C). amphibians
(D). aquarians
Right Answer: C
134. Directions (131-135): In the following questions, a group of four
alternatives is given. Choose the one which can be substituted for the
given words/ sentences.
Easily duped or fooled
(A). insensible
(B). perceptible
(C). gullible
(D). indefensible
Right Answer: C
135. Directions (131-135): In the following questions, a group of four
alternatives is given. Choose the one which can be substituted for the
given words/ sentences.
Fear of water
(A). claustrophobia
(B). hydrophobia
(C). insomnia
(D). obsession
Right Answer: B
136. Directions (136-140): In the following question, groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly
spelt word.
(A). despondant
(B). detrimental
(C). diaphanous
(D). dilapidated
Right Answer: D
137. Directions (136-140): In the following question, groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly
spelt word.
(A). seperate
(B). confidance
(C). reference
(D). prosperous
Right Answer: D
138. Directions (136-140): In the following question, groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly
spelt word.
(A). reprimand
(B). resplendant
(C). respositary
(D). requisite
Right Answer: B
139. Directions (136-140): In the following question, groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly
spelt word.
(A). necter
(B). necassary
(C). puntuation
(D). punjent
Right Answer: D
140. Directions (136-140): In the following question, groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly
spelt word.
(A). irrelevance
(B). maintence
(C). exuberance
(D). acquaintance
Right Answer: C
141. Directions (141-150): In the following passage, some of the words
have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand
what it is about. The fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives
given.
PASSAGE
141 the common 142, the ostrich does not bury its head in the sand
to 143 danger. A ostrich can run 144 a speed of forty–five miles 145
hour, kick powerfully and 146 aggressively 147 its break. As the 148
and fastest bird in the world, it 149 need to 150 its head.
(A). In keeping with
(B). As per
(C). According to
(D). Contrary to
Right Answer: D
142. Directions (141-150): In the following passage, some of the words
have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand
what it is about. The fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives
given.
PASSAGE
141 the common 142, the ostrich does not bury its head in the sand
to 143 danger. A ostrich can run 144 a speed of forty–five miles 145
hour, kick powerfully and 146 aggressively 147 its break. As the 148
and fastest bird in the world, it 149 need to 150 its head.
(A). fact
(B). view
(C). expectation
(D). belief
Right Answer: D
143. Directions (141-150): In the following passage, some of the words
have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand
what it is about. The fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives
given.
PASSAGE
141 the common 142, the ostrich does not bury its head in the sand
to 143 danger. A ostrich can run 144 a speed of forty–five miles 145
hour, kick powerfully and 146 aggressively 147 its break. As the 148
and fastest bird in the world, it 149 need to 150 its head.
(A). resist
(B). avoid
(C). face
(D). encounter
Right Answer: D
144. Directions (141-150): In the following passage, some of the words
have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand
what it is about. The fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives
given.
PASSAGE
141 the common 142, the ostrich does not bury its head in the sand
to 143 danger. A ostrich can run 144 a speed of forty–five miles 145
hour, kick powerfully and 146 aggressively 147 its break. As the 148
and fastest bird in the world, it 149 need to 150 its head.
(A). with
(B). for
(C). at
(D). to
Right Answer: C
145. Directions (141-150): In the following passage, some of the words
have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand
what it is about. The fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives
given.
PASSAGE
141 the common 142, the ostrich does not bury its head in the sand
to 143 danger. A ostrich can run 144 a speed of forty–five miles 145
hour, kick powerfully and 146 aggressively 147 its break. As the 148
and fastest bird in the world, it 149 need to 150 its head.
(A). one
(B). per
(C). a
(D). every
Right Answer: B
146. Directions (141-150): In the following passage, some of the words
have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand
what it is about. The fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives
given.
PASSAGE
141 the common 142, the ostrich does not bury its head in the sand
to 143 danger. A ostrich can run 144 a speed of forty–five miles 145
hour, kick powerfully and 146 aggressively 147 its break. As the 148
and fastest bird in the world, it 149 need to 150 its head.
(A). peck
(B). play
(C). push
(D). poke
Right Answer: A
147. Directions (141-150): In the following passage, some of the words
have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand
what it is about. The fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives
given.
PASSAGE
141 the common 142, the ostrich does not bury its head in the sand
to 143 danger. A ostrich can run 144 a speed of forty–five miles 145
hour, kick powerfully and 146 aggressively 147 its break. As the 148
and fastest bird in the world, it 149 need to 150 its head.
(A). on
(B). through
(C). with
(D). by
Right Answer: C
148. Directions (141-150): In the following passage, some of the words
have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand
what it is about. The fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives
given.
PASSAGE
141 the common 142, the ostrich does not bury its head in the sand
to 143 danger. A ostrich can run 144 a speed of forty–five miles 145
hour, kick powerfully and 146 aggressively 147 its break. As the 148
and fastest bird in the world, it 149 need to 150 its head.
(A). larger
(B). largest
(C). more large
(D). largest
Right Answer: B
149. Directions (141-150): In the following passage, some of the words
have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand
what it is about. The fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives
given.
PASSAGE
141 the common 142, the ostrich does not bury its head in the sand
to 143 danger. A ostrich can run 144 a speed of forty–five miles 145
hour, kick powerfully and 146 aggressively 147 its break. As the 148
and fastest bird in the world, it 149 need to 150 its head.
(A). doesn’t
(B). did
(C). does
(D). didn’t
Right Answer: A
150. Directions (141-150): In the following passage, some of the words
have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand
what it is about. The fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives
given.
PASSAGE
141 the common 142, the ostrich does not bury its head in the sand
to 143 danger. A ostrich can run 144 a speed of forty–five miles 145
hour, kick powerfully and 146 aggressively 147 its break. As the 148
and fastest bird in the world, it 149 need to 150 its head.
(A). put
(B). cover
(C). shield
(D). bury
Right Answer: D
151. If
= 1.732, is given, then the value of 
(A). 11.732
(B). 13.928
(C). 12.928
(D). 13.925
Right Answer: B
152.
is equal to
(A).
(B).
(C).
(D).
Right Answer: C
153. The number, which is to be added to 0.01 to get 1.1. is
(A). 1.11
(B). 1.09
(C). 1
(D). 0.10
Right Answer: B
154. If n+
= 97 then the value of n is
(A). 40
(B). 42
(C). 44
(D). 46
Right Answer: B
155. 25, 50, 30, 45, 35, 40, ?
(A). 30
(B). 35
(C). 40
(D). 45
Right Answer: C
156. [1 × 2 + 2 × 3 + 3 × 4 × 5 + 5 × 6 + 6 × 7 + 7 × 8 + 8 × 9 + 9 × 10 + 10 × 11] is equal to
(A). 770
(B). 660
(C). 440
(D). 330
Right Answer: C
157.
is equal to
(A). 56
(B). 44
(C). 50
(D). 48
Right Answer: B
158. If x, y and z are real numbers such that
+
= 0 then (x + y + z) is equal to
(A). -12
(B). 0
(C). 8
(D). 12
Right Answer: D
159.
is equal to
(A). 385
(B). 2916
(C). 540
(D). 384
Right Answer: D
160. The value of
(A). 4
(B).
(C). 270
(D).
Right Answer: B
161. The product of two numbers is 120 and the sum of their squares is 289. The sum of the two numbers is
(A). 23
(B). 7
(C). 13
(D). 169
Right Answer: A
162. Numbers 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, …, 196, 198, 200 are multiplied together. The number of zeros and the end of the product on the right will be equal to—
(A). 21
(B). 22
(C). 24
(D). 25
Right Answer: C
163. A takes twice as much time as B and thrice as much as C to complete a piece work. They together complete the work in 1 day. In what time, will A alone complete the work.
(A). 9 days
(B). 5 days
(C). 6 days
(D). 4 days
Right Answer: C
164. A and B together can do a place of work in 5 days and A alone can do it in 8 days. B alone can do the same piece of work in
(A).
(B).
(C).
(D).
Right Answer: C
165. 2 men and 1 women together can complete a piece of work in 14 days, while 4 women and 2 men together can do it in 8 days, how much should a women get per day?
(A). Rs. 400
(B). Rs. 450
(C). Rs. 480
(D). Rs. 360
Right Answer: A
166. If the lengths of the three sides of a triangle are 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm, then the length of the median to its greatest side is
(A). 8 cm
(B). 6 cm
(C). 5 cm
(D). 4.8 cm
Right Answer: C
167. The circumference of a circle is 11 cm and the angle of a sector of the circle is 60o. The area of the sector is
(A).
(B).
(C).
(D).
Right Answer: A
168. The perimeter of a rhombus is 100 cm. if one of its diagonals is 14 cm, then the area of he rhombus is
(A).
(B).
(C).
(D).
Right Answer: C
169. The surface areas of two spheres are in the ration 4 : 9. Their volumes will be in the ratio
(A). 2 : 3
(B). 4 : 9
(C). 8 : 27
(D). 64 : 729
Right Answer: C
170. The height of the cone is 30 cm. A small cone is cut off at the top by a plane parallel to its base. If its volume is
of the volume of the cone, at what height, above the base, is the section made?
(A). 6 cm
(B). 8 cm
(C). 10 cm
(D). 20 cm
Right Answer: D
171. The discount series 10%, 20%, 40% is equivalent to a single discount of
(A). 50%
(B). 56.8%
(C). 60%
(D). 62.28%
Right Answer: B
172. A train is travelling at the rate of 45krn/hr. How many seconds, it will take to cover a distance of
km ?
(A). 36
(B). 64
(C). 90
(D). 120
Right Answer: B
173. A shopkeeper allows 4% discount on his marked price. If the cost price of an article is Rs. 100 and he has to make a profit of 20%, then his marked price must be
(A). Rs. 96
(B). Rs. 120
(C). Rs. 125
(D). Rs. 130
Right Answer: C
174. If A : B = 3 : 5 and B : C = 4 : 7, Then A : B : C is
(A). 6 : 9 : 14
(B). 3 : 5 : 7
(C). 12 : 20 : 21
(D). 12 : 20 : 35
Right Answer: D
175. If
, then 
is equal to
(A). 2
(B). 4
(C). 5
(D). 6
Right Answer: A
176. The ratio of the quantities of sugar, in which sugar costing Rs. 20 per kg. and Rs. 15 per kg. should be mixed so that there will be neither loss nor gain on selling the mixed sugar at the rate of Rs. 16 per kg. is
(A). 2 : 1
(B). 1 : 2
(C). 4 : 1
(D). 1 : 4
Right Answer: D
177. A sum of Rs 86, 700 is to be divided among A, B and C in such a manner that for every rupee that A gets, B gets 90 paise and for every rupee that B gets. C gets 100 paise. B’s share will be
(A). Rs. 26, 010
(B). Rs. 27, 000
(C). Rs. 28, 000
(D). Rs. 28, 090
Right Answer: B
178. Two types of alloys posses gold and silver in the ratio of 7 : 22 and 21 : 37. In what ratio should these alloys be mixed so as to have a new alloy in which gold and silver would exist in the ratio 25 : 62?
(A). 13 : 8
(B). 8 : 13
(C). 13 : 12
(D). 6 : 9
Right Answer: A
179. The average of consecutive odd numbers is 53. The least odd number is
(A). 22
(B). 27
(C). 35
(D). 45
Right Answer: D
180. The average age of group of 20 girls is 15 years and that of another group of 25 boys it is 24 years. The average age of the two groups mixed together is
(A). 19.5 years
(B). 20 years
(C). 21 years
(D). 21.5 years
Right Answer: B
181. Five years ago, the average age of P, Q and R was 25 years and seven years ago, the average age of Q and R was 20 years. The present age of P is
(A). 36 years
(B). 29 years
(C). 24 years
(D). 21 years
Right Answer: A
182. The average per day income of A, B and C is Rs. 450. If the average per day income of A and B be Rs. 400 and that of B and C be Rs. 430, the per day income of B is
(A). Rs. 300
(B). Rs. 310
(C). Rs. 415
(D). Rs. 425
Right Answer: B
183. A man sold an article at a loss of 20%. If he had sold it for Rs. 50 more, he would have gained 5%. The cost price of the article was
(A). Rs. 250
(B). Rs. 300
(C). Rs. 180
(D). Rs. 200
Right Answer: D
184. By selling 14 watches of equal cost price at the rate of Rs. 450 each, there is a profit equal to the cost price of 4 watches. The cost price of a watch is
(A). Rs. 350
(B). Rs. 360
(C). Rs. 375
(D). Rs. 400
Right Answer: A
185. A person bought two articles A and B for Rs 5,500. He sold A at 20% profit and B at 10% loss. He thus gained 2% on his outlay. The cost price of A was
(A). Rs. 3,000
(B). Rs. 2,500
(C). Rs. 2,000
(D). Rs. 3,500
Right Answer: C
186. If the total cost of 73 articles having equal cost is Rs. 5,110 and the total selling price of 89 such articles is Rs. 5,607, then in the transaction, there will be
(A). a loss of 15%
(B). a gain of 10%
(C). a loss of 10%
(D). a gain of 15%
Right Answer: C
187. What was the percentage increase of disbursement of loans of all banks together from 1997 to 1998 ?
(A). 6%
(B).
(C).
(D).
Right Answer: B
188. Nitin’s salary was reduced by 10% and then the reduced salary was increased by 10%. His new salary in comparison with his original salary is
(A). the same
(B). 1% more
(C). 1% less
(D). 5% less
Right Answer: C
189. The number of seats in a cinema hall is increased by 25%. The cost of each ticket is also increased by 10%. The effect of these changes on the revenue collection will be an increase of
(A). 37.5%
(B). 45.5%
(C). 47.5%
(D). 29.5%
Right Answer: A
190. A man spends 40% of his monthly salary on food and one-third of the remaining on transport. If he saves Rs. 4,500 per month, which is equal to half the balance after spending on food and transport, his monthly salary is
(A). Rs. 11,250
(B). Rs. 22,500
(C). Rs. 25,000
(D). Rs. 45,000
Right Answer: B
191. If 80% of a number added to 80 gives the result as the number itself, then the number is
(A). 200
(B). 320
(C). 400
(D). 480
Right Answer: C
192. A bus moving as a speed of 45 km/hr overtakes a truck 150 meters ahead going in the same direction in 30 seconds. The speed of the truck is
(A). 27 km/hr
(B). 24 km/hr
(C). 25 km/hr
(D). 28 km/hr
Right Answer: A
193. A train crosses a pole in 15seconds and a 100 meters long platform in 25 seconds. The length of the trains is
(A). 125 m
(B). 130 m
(C). 150 m
(D). 175 m
Right Answer: C
194. In how much time, will a sum of money become double of itself at 15% per annum simple interest?
(A).
(B).
(C).
(D).
Right Answer: D
195. The difference between compound and simple interest on a sum of money for 2 years at 8% per annum is Rs 768. The sum is
(A). Rs. 1,00,200
(B). Rs. 1,30,000
(C). Rs. 1,20,000
(D). Rs. 1,02,000
Right Answer: C
196. The difference between compound interest on Rs. 5,000 for
years at 8% per annum, according as the interest in payable half yearly or yearly is
(A). Rs. 8.16
(B). Rs. 8
(C). Rs. 4.08
(D). Rs. 4
Right Answer: A
197. Directions (197-200): The pie-chart given below shows the marks
obtained by a student in an examination. If the total marks obtained
by him in the examination were 540, answer the questions given
below based on this pie chart.
In which subject, did the student obtain 105 marks?
(A). Maths
(B). Social studies
(C). Science
(D). Hindi
Right Answer: D
198. Directions (197-200): The pie-chart given below shows the marks
obtained by a student in an examination. If the total marks obtained
by him in the examination were 540, answer the questions given
below based on this pie chart.
What is the central angle corresponding of Science?
(A).
(B).
(C).
(D).
Right Answer: B
199. Directions (197-200): The pie-chart given below shows the marks
obtained by a student in an examination. If the total marks obtained
by him in the examination were 540, answer the questions given
below based on this pie chart.
How many more marks were obtained by the student in Maths than those in Hindi?
(A). 30
(B). 20
(C). 10
(D). 40
Right Answer: A
200. Directions (197-200): The pie-chart given below shows the marks
obtained by a student in an examination. If the total marks obtained
by him in the examination were 540, answer the questions given
below based on this pie chart.
How many marks were obtained by the student in Science?
(A). 130
(B). 120
(C). 125
(D). 140
Right Answer: B
Mechanic : Spanner : : Carpenter : ?
(A). Tree
(B). Wood
(C). Furniture
(D). Saw
Right Answer: D
2. Directions (1-10): Select the related word/letter/ figure/number from the given alternatives.
Fish : Gills : : Min : ?
(A). Ears
(B). Eyes
(C). Lungs
(D). Nose
Right Answer: D
3. Directions (1-10): Select the related word/letter/ figure/number from
the given alternatives.
Grain : Warehouse : : Water : ?
(A). Drink
(B). Dam
(C). Canal
(D). River
Right Answer: B
4. Directions (1-10): Select the related word/letter/ figure/number
from the given alternatives.
AZBY : CXDW : : HSIR : ?
(A). JQKP
(B). KPLO
(C). YBXC
(D). TGSH
Right Answer: A
5. Directions (1-10): Select the related word/letter/ figure/number
from the given alternatives.
DMVE : ? : : HQZI : JSBK
(A). GOXF
(B). FOXG
(C). GOXG
(D). FNWG
Right Answer: B
6. Directions (1-10): Select the related word/letter/ figure/number
from the given alternatives.
Question Figures :
(A).
(B).
(C).
(D).
Right Answer: B
7. Directions (1-10): Select the related word/letter/ figure/number
from the given alternatives.
Question Figures :
(A).
(B).
(C).
(D).
Right Answer: B
8. Directions (1-10): Select the related word/letter/ figure/number
from the given alternatives.
Question Figures :
(A).
(B).
(C).
(D).
Right Answer: C
9. Directions (1-10): Select the related word/letter/ figure/number
from the given alternatives.
16 : 49 : : 100 : ?
(A). 85
(B). 121
(C). 144
(D). 169
Right Answer: D
10. Directions (1-10): Select the related word/letter/ figure/number
from the given alternatives.
15 : 220 : : 100 : ?
(A). 600
(B). 620
(C). 625
(D). 650
Right Answer: A
11. Directions (11-19): Select the one which is different from the other three responses.
(A). Son
(B). Niece
(C). Grandson
(D). Grand-daughter
Right Answer: B
12. Directions (11-19): Select the one which is different from the other three responses.
(A). January
(B). February
(C). July
(D). December
Right Answer: B
13. Directions (11-19): Select the one which is different from the other three responses.
(A). Intelligent
(B). Precis
(C). Stupid
(D). Comprehensive
Right Answer: C
14. Directions (11-19): Select the one which is different from the other three responses.
(A). ZXVT
(B). RPNL
(C). OMKI
(D). HFDC
Right Answer: D
15. Directions (11-19): Select the one which is different from the other three responses.
(A). MONJK
(B). ACAZV
(C). GMRGS
(D). METEI
Right Answer: A
16. Directions (11-19): Select the one which is different from the other three responses.
(A). 19
(B). 25
(C). 16
(D). 49
Right Answer: A
17. Directions (11-19): Select the one which is different from the other three responses.
(A). 26, 119
(B). 35, 513
(C). 10, 27
(D). 17, 65
Right Answer: C
18. Directions (11-19): Select the one which is different from the other three responses.
(A).
(B).
(C).
(D).
Right Answer: D
19. Directions (11-19): Select the one which is different from the other three responses.
(A). 6 – 13 – 24
(B). 12 – 19 – 30
(C). 18 – 25 – 34
(D). 24 – 31 – 42
Right Answer: C
20. A series of figures is given which can be grouped into classes. Select the group into which the figures can be classified from the given responses:
(A). 3,5,1; 1,4,6; 7,8,9,
(B). 3,4,1; 5,7,9; 2,8,6
(C). 1,4,9; 3,6,8; 2,5,7
(D). 8,5,4; 3,2,1; 7,6,9
Right Answer: C
21. Directions (21-22): In each of the following questions, arrange the following words in a meaningful order:
1. Neonate 2. Child
3. Infant 4. Embryo
(A). 1, 3, 2, 4
(B). 4, 1, 3, 2
(C). 4, 3, 2, 1
(D). 3, 1, 4, 2
Right Answer: B
22. Directions (21-22): In each of the following questions, arrange the following words in a meaningful order:
1. Plastering 2. Painting
3. Foundation 4. Walls
5. Ceiling
(A). 3, 4, 1, 2, 5
(B). 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(C). 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
(D). 3, 4, 5, 1, 2
Right Answer: B
23. Directions (23-30): A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given one that will complete
the series.
Z3a, W5a, T8g, Q12j, ?
(A). M16n
(B). N17m
(C). N16k
(D). K17n
Right Answer: B
24. Directions (23-30): A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given one that will complete
the series.
DGJ, FLN, HKN, JMP, ?
(A). LON
(B). LOR
(C). LOQ
(D). LOM
Right Answer: B
25. Directions (23-30): A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given one that will complete
the series.
321, 301, ?, 181, 21
(A). 281
(B). 161
(C). 241
(D). 261
Right Answer: D
26. Directions (23-30): A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given one that will complete
the series.
2816, ?, 176, 44, 11
(A). 704
(B). 1408
(C). 352
(D). 2640
Right Answer: A
27. Directions (23-30): A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given one that will complete the series.
Question Figures :
(A).
(B).
(C).
(D).
Right Answer: D
28. Directions (23-30): A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given one that will complete the series.
Question Figures :
(A).
(B).
(C).
(D).
Right Answer: A
29. Directions (23-30): A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given one that will complete the series.
Question Figures :
(A).
(B).
(C).
(D).
Right Answer: D
30. Directions (23-30): A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given one that will complete the series.
(A).
(B).
(C).
(D).
Right Answer: B
31. In a row of children, Harish is eleventh from the left and Mangesh is seventeenth from the right. When they exchange their places, Harish will be thirteenth from the left. Which of the following will be the new position of Mangesh from the right?
(A). Eleventh
(B). Twenty-first
(C). Nineteenth
(D). Twenty-ninth
Right Answer: C
32. A is the son of B, while B and C are sisters to one another. E is the mother of C. If D is the son of E, which of the following statements is correct?
(A). D is the maternal uncle of A
(B). E is the brother of B
(C). D is the cousin of A
(D). B and D are brothers
Right Answer: A
33. Question Figures :
(A).
(B).
(C).
(D).
Right Answer: D
34. If BOMBAY is coded as FSQFEC, which word could be coded as QCWSVI?
(A). MANDYA
(B). MANDAL
(C). MYSORE
(D). MYSOER
Right Answer: C
35. If D = 4 and READ is coded as 7, then what is HEAR coded as?
(A). 32
(B). 33
(C). 7
(D). 8
Right Answer: D
36. Some equations are solved on the basis of a certain system. On the same basis, find out the correct answer from amongst the four alternatives for the unsolved equation:
72 × 96 = 6927
58 × 87 = 7885
79 × 86 = ?
(A). 7689
(B). 8976
(C). 6897
(D). 6978
Right Answer: C
37. If ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘–‘ means ‘+’, ‘×’ means ‘–’, ‘+’ means ‘÷’, then what will be the value of the following?
20 + 4 × 6 – 5 = ?
(A). 28
(B). 32
(C). 34
(D). 36
Right Answer: C
38. Directions (38-40): Select the missing number from the given
responses.
(A). 11
(B). 12
(C). 14
(D). 18
Right Answer: B
39. Directions (38-40): Select the missing number from the given
responses.
144 (132) 121
64 (?) 100
(A). 70
(B). 80
(C). 85
(D). 90
Right Answer: B
40. Directions (38-40): Select the missing number from the given
responses.
(A). 36
(B). 33
(C). 45
(D). 60
Right Answer: D
41. In an imaginary mathematical operation ‘+’ means multiplication, ‘×’ means subtraction, ‘÷’ means addition and ‘–’ means division. All other rules in mathematical operation are the same as in the existing system. Which one of the following gives the result of
175 – 25 ÷ 5 + 20 x 3 + 10 ?
(A). 160
(B). 2370
(C). 77
(D). 240
Right Answer: C
42. Rana travels 10km North, turns left and travels 4 km and then again turns right and covers another 5 km. He then turns to right—hand side and travels another 4 km. How far is the from the point of starting of his journey?
(A). 5 km
(B). 4 km
(C). 15 km
(D). 10 km
Right Answer: C
43. Four position of a dice are given below. Identity the number at the bottom when top’s number is 6:
(A). 5
(B). 1
(C). 3
(D). 4
Right Answer: B
44. Among the four answer figures, which figure can be formed from the cut pieces given the question figure?
Question Figures :
(A).
(B).
(C).
(D).
Right Answer: D
45. The diagram gives the number of candidates who failed in Chemistry, Electronics and English in different tests. The total number of candidates appeared was 600. What is the percentage of candidates who failed in at least two subjects?
(A). 12.5
(B). 1.25
(C). 12.05
(D). 12
Right Answer: A
46. Find out which of the diagrams as given in the alternatives correctly represents the relationship among Employers, Doctors and Women
(A).
(B).
(C).
(D).
Right Answer: C
47. In this question, a statement is give followed by four alternative inferences. Select the one which is most appropriate.
Statement: A large number of language specialists write novels. Inferences:
(A). Some language specialists do not write novels
(B). A novelist need not be a language specialist
(C). Language specialty is highly helpful to write novels
(D). All novelists are language specialists
Right Answer: C
48. In this question, a statement is given followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow(s) from the given statement.
Statement: Industries destroy the natural resources.
Conclusions:
I. All natural resources are destroyed by industries.
II. No industries, no environmental pollution.
(A). Only I follows
(B). Only II follows
(C). Neither I nor II follows
(D). Both I and II follow
Right Answer: C
49. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?
Question Figures :
(A).
(B).
(C).
(D).
Right Answer: C
50. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/ embedded?
Question Figure:
(A).
(B).
(C).
(D).
Right Answer: A
51. Which of the following is not the source of the revenue of central Government?
(A). Income Tax
(B). Corporate Tax
(C). Agricultural Income Tax
(D). Excise Duty
Right Answer: C
52. ‘Operation Flood’ is associated with–
(A). milk production
(B). wheat production
(C). flood control
(D). water harvesting
Right Answer: A
53. Who has the sole right to issue paper currency in India?
(A). The Government of India
(B). The Finance Commission
(C). The Reserve Bank of India
(D). The Central Bank of India
Right Answer: C
54. A fall in demand or rise in supply of a commodity-
(A). increase the price of that commodity
(B). decrease the price of that commodity
(C). neutralises the changes in the price
(D). determines the price elasticity
Right Answer: B
55. Planning Commission of India was established in
(A). 1947
(B). 1950
(C). 1951
(D). 1949
Right Answer: B
56. How many types of emergencies are envisaged by the Constitution?
(A). 1
(B). 2
(C). 3
(D). 4
Right Answer: C
57. Who calls the Joint Session of the two Houses of the Parliament?
(A). The President
(B). The Prime Minister
(C). The Lok Sabha Speaker
(D). The Vice-President
Right Answer: A
58. In which year, Gandhiji established Sabarmati Ashram in Gujarat?
(A). 1916
(B). 1917
(C). 1918
(D). 1929
Right Answer: B
59. No confidence Motion against the Union Council of Minister can be initiated
(A). in the Rajya Sabha only
(B). in the Lok Sabha only
(C). in the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(D). in the State Assemblies
Right Answer: B
60. Which constitutional Amendment deleted the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights?
(A). 42nd Amendment
(B). 62nd Amendment
(C). 44th Amendment
(D). 43rd Amendment
Right Answer: C
61. Most of the Chola temples were dedicated to
(A). Vishnu
(B). Shiva
(C). Brahma
(D). Durga
Right Answer: B
62. Where was the First Session of Indian National Congress held?
(A). Bombay
(B). Madras
(C). Calcutta
(D). Delhi
Right Answer: A
63. In the Gupta period, the largest number of coins were issued in
(A). gold
(B). silver
(C). copper
(D). iron
Right Answer: A
64. The tax which the kings used to collect from the people in the Vedic period was called-
(A). Bali
(B). Vidatha
(C). Varman
(D). Kara
Right Answer: A
65. Buddha preached his first sermon at-
(A). Gaya
(B). Sarnath
(C). Pataliputra
(D). Vaishali
Right Answer: B
66. Which one of the following is not the result of underground water action?
(A). Stalactites
(B). Stalagmites
(C). Sinkholes
(D). Fiords
Right Answer: D
67. Grassland is called “pampas” in-
(A). Africa
(B). South America
(C). the United Kingdom
(D). the USA
Right Answer: B
68. The coastal part of water bodies of the oceans which is structurally part of the mainland of the continents is called
(A). isthumus
(B). oceanic ridge
(C). continental shelf
(D). continental slope
Right Answer: C
69. Anemometer is used to measure
(A). wind direction
(B). wind velocity
(C). pressure gradient
(D). wind speed and time
Right Answer: B
70. Marina Trench is found in
(A). Atlantic Ocean
(B). Pacific Ocean
(C). Indian Ocean
(D). Arctic Ocean
Right Answer: B
71. Which cells in our body have the least regenerative power?
(A). Brain cells
(B). Muscle cells
(C). Bone cells
(D). Liver cells
Right Answer: A
72. A potato tuber has been cut into two halves. A few drops of iodine solution are placed on the cut surface of one of the halves. What colour change will be noticed?
(A). From brow to blue-black
(B). From brown to orange-red
(C). From blue to pink
(D). From pink to blue-green
Right Answer: A
73. How many values does a human heart have?
(A). Four
(B). Three
(C). Two
(D). One
Right Answer: C
74. The cells which are responsible for the production of antibodies are
(A). red blood cells
(B). neutrophils
(C). lymphocytes
(D). platelets
Right Answer: C
75. The source of the enzyme, diastase is
(A). salivary gland
(B). stomach
(C). liver
(D). pancreas
Right Answer: A
76. Mycoplasma is associated with a disease that affects the organs of
(A). respiration
(B). excretion
(C). reproduction
(D). digestion
Right Answer: A
77. Which one of the following has the highest value of specific heat?
(A). Glass
(B). Copper
(C). Lead
(D). Water
Right Answer: D
78. The device used for locating submerged objects under sea is.
(A). sonar
(B). radar
(C). laser
(D). maser
Right Answer: A
79. The metal whose electrical conductivity is more, is
(A). copper
(B). aluminum
(C). silver
(D). lead
Right Answer: C
80. What happens to a liquid, when the vapour pressure equals the atmospheric pressure?
(A). The liquid cools
(B). The liquid boils
(C). No change
(D). The liquid evaporates
Right Answer: B
81. Seaweeds are important source of
(A). fluorine
(B). chlorine
(C). bromine
(D). iodine
Right Answer: D
82. In nuclear reactor, heavy water is used as
(A). coolant
(B). fuel
(C). moderator
(D). atomic smasher
Right Answer: C
83. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(A). Tetanus-BCG
(B). Tuberculosis-ATS
(C). Malaria-Chloroquin
(D). Scurvy-Thiamin
Right Answer: C
84. Tear gas used by the police to disperse the mob contains
(A). carbon dioxide
(B). chlorine
(C). ammonia
(D). hydrogen sulphide
Right Answer: B
85. Correct expansion of the term ‘http’ in Internet address is
(A). higher text transfer protocol
(B). higher transfer text protocol
(C). hybrid text transfer protocol
(D). hypertext transfer protocol
Right Answer: D
86. Which of the following is a Navaratna PSE?
(A). Steel Authority of India Ltd.
(B). MMTC Ltd.
(C). National Aluminum Company Ltd.
(D). Oil India Ltd.
Right Answer: D
87. ‘World AIDS Day’ is observed on
(A). 1st January
(B). 1st April
(C). 1st September
(D). 1st December
Right Answer: D
88. Who was (is) the first lady recipient of Dada Saheb Phalke Award?
(A). Nargis Dutt
(B). Uma Devi
(C). Devika Rani
(D). Sulochana
Right Answer: C
89. Out of the following artists, who has written the book, Meandering pastures of Memories?
(A). Shovana Narayan
(B). Saroja Vaidyanathan
(C). Yamini krishnamoorthy
(D). Geeta Chandran
Right Answer: A
90. Out of the following Indian States, which State does not have any maritime boundary?
(A). Gujarat
(B). Goa
(C). Rajasthan
(D). Maharashtra
Right Answer: C
91. With which brand of product, is the slogan ‘Just do it’ associated?
(A). Bata
(B). Power
(C). Wood land
(D). Nike
Right Answer: D
92. With which of the following books, is Dr. S. Radhakrishnan associated?
{A} An Idealist View of Life
{B} Bhagavad Gita
{C} Conquest of self
{D} Hindu View of Life
(A). A, B, and C only
(B). B, C and D only
(C). A, C and D only
(D). A, B and D only
Right Answer: D
93. The Headquarters of International Court of Justice is located in
(A). Paris (France)
(B). Geneva (Switzerland)
(C). New York (USA)
(D). The Hague (Netherlands)
Right Answer: D
94. ‘Subroto Cup’ is associated with which game/sports?
(A). Hockey
(B). Football
(C). Basketball
(D). Badminton
Right Answer: B
95. The first talkie film in India was
(A). Raja Harishchandra
(B). Alam Ara
(C). Chandida
(D). Jhansi Ki Rani
Right Answer: B
96. Who holds the record for scoring the highest number of runs (individuals) in One-day Cricket World Cup Tournaments?
(A). S. Gnaguly
(B). S. Tendulkar
(C). B. Lara
(D). G. Kirsten
Right Answer: C
97. Which is the field in which Ustad Bismillah Khan has distinguished himself?
(A). Sitar
(B). Guitar
(C). Shehnai
(D). Hindustani Music (Classical-Vocal)
Right Answer: C
98. Where is the Baba Imambara located?
(A). Agra
(B). Lucknow
(C). Patna
(D). Allahabad
Right Answer: B
99. What does the open market operation of the RBI mean?
(A). Buying and selling shares
(B). Auctioning of foreign exchange
(C). Trading is securities
(D). Transaction in gold
Right Answer: C
100. ‘Consumer Day’ is celebrated every year on
(A). 1st April
(B). 23rd April
(C). 15th March
(D). 5th December
Right Answer: C
101. Directions (101-105): In the following questions, some of the
sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a
sentence has an error. The number of that part is your answer. If there is no error, your answer (4) i.e. No error.
(A). They agreed
(B). to repair the damage
(C). freely of charge
(D). No error
Right Answer: C
102. Directions (101-105): In the following questions, some of the
sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a
sentence has an error. The number of that part is your answer. If
there is no error, your answer (4) i.e. No error.
(A). When Darun heard the news that his father had been hospitalised
(B). he cancelled his trip
(C). and returned back to his village
(D). No error
Right Answer: C
103. Directions (101-105): In the following questions, some of the
sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a
sentence has an error. The number of that part is your answer. If there is no error, your answer (4) i.e. No error.
(A). The Governing Board
(B). comprises of
(C). several distinguished personalities
(D). No error
Right Answer: B
104. Directions (101-105): In the following questions, some of the
sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a
sentence has an error. The number of that part is your answer. If there is no error, your answer (4) i.e. No error.
(A). My uncle does not spend
(B). so much money on that house
(C). unless he thinks of moving in soon
(D). No error
Right Answer: A
105. Directions (101-105): In the following questions, some of the
sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a
sentence has an error. The number of that part is your answer. If there is no error, your answer (4) i.e. No error.
(A). Neither my sister nor my brother
(B). are interested
(C). in moving to another house
(D). No error
Right Answer: D
106. Directions (106-110): In the following sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with the appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.
If I ____ a doctor, I would serve the poor.
(A). am
(B). had been
(C). were
(D). was
Right Answer: C
107. Directions (106-110): In the following sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with the appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.
He is weak ____ he does a lot of work.
(A). and
(B). yet
(C). because
(D). so
Right Answer: B
108. Directions (106-110): In the following sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with the appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.
Mahesh showed an ____ for sports at a very early stage.
(A). attitude
(B). aptitude
(C). imagination
(D). intuition
Right Answer: B
109. Directions (106-110): In the following sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with the appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.
For ____ sake don’t tell it to others.
(A). haven
(B). heaven
(C). heavens
(D). heven’s
Right Answer: D
110. Directions (106-110): In the following sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with the appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.
Napoleon’s army ____ to the Russian soldiers without any flight.
(A). evaded
(B). decimated
(C). capitulated
(D). cordoned
Right Answer: C
111. Directions (111-115): In the following questions, out of the four
alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the
given word.
Supersede
(A). suspend
(B). enforce
(C). repeal
(D). set aside
Right Answer: C
112. Directions (111-115): In the following questions, out of the four
alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the
given word.
Perilous
(A). monstrous
(B). dangerous
(C). cautious
(D). dubious
Right Answer: B
113. Directions (111-115): In the following questions, out of the four
alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the
given word.
Affluence
(A). richness
(B). difficulty
(C). influence
(D). awkwardness
Right Answer: A
114. Directions (111-115): In the following questions, out of the four
alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the
given word.
Bifurcated
(A). dissected into pieces
(B). divided into two
(C). thoroughly evaluate
(D). verbally abused
Right Answer: B
115. Directions (111-115): In the following questions, out of the four
alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the
given word.
Consensus
(A). unanimity
(B). equanimity
(C). magnanimity
(D). proximity
Right Answer: A
116. Directions (116-120): In the following questions, choose the word
opposite in meaning to the given word.
Salient
(A). correct
(B). insignificant
(C). central
(D). convenient
Right Answer: A
117. Directions (116-120): In the following questions, choose the word
opposite in meaning to the given word.
Dormant
(A). strong
(B). reveal
(C). disguise
(D). pretended
Right Answer: D
118. Directions (116-120): In the following questions, choose the word
opposite in meaning to the given word.
Camouflage
(A). hide
(B). reveal
(C). disguise
(D). pretended
Right Answer: B
119. Directions (116-120): In the following questions, choose the word
opposite in meaning to the given word.
Latent
(A). primitive
(B). evident
(C). potent
(D). talented
Right Answer: D
120. Directions (116-120): In the following questions, choose the word
opposite in meaning to the given word.
Ample
(A). meagre
(B). quantitative
(C). sufficient
(D). tasty
Right Answer: A
121. Directions (121-125): In the following questions, four alternative are
given for the idiom/phrase underlined in the sentence. Choose the
alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
He is always praised for his gift of the gab.
(A). being lucky
(B). getting something free
(C). talent for speaking
(D). great skill
Right Answer: C
122. Directions (121-125): In the following questions, four alternative are
given for the idiom/phrase underlined in the sentence. Choose the
alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
The teacher’s extra hours of coaching went a long way in improving the student’s performance.
(A). took great effort
(B). spent a lot of time
(C). extended widely
(D). helped considerably
Right Answer: D
123. Directions (121-125): In the following questions, four alternative are
given for the idiom/phrase underlined in the sentence. Choose the
alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
The administration found it difficult to cope with the striking employees.
(A). move
(B). compromise
(C). handle
(D). subdue
Right Answer: C
124. Directions (121-125): In the following questions, four alternative are
given for the idiom/phrase underlined in the sentence. Choose the
alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
The criminal was pardoned at the eleventh hour just as the was about to be hanged.
(A). at eleven o’clock
(B). suddenly
(C). at the very last moment
(D). at midnight
Right Answer: C
125. Directions (121-125): In the following questions, four alternative are
given for the idiom/phrase underlined in the sentence. Choose the
alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
He spoke well though it was his maiden speech.
(A). long speech
(B). brief speech
(C). first speech
(D). emotional speech
Right Answer: C
126. Directions (126-130): In the following questions, apart of the
sentences is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the
underlined part at (1), (2) and (3), which may improve the sentence.
Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed,
your answer is (4).
He was released from the hospital yesterday
(A). let out
(B). discharged
(C). dismissed
(D). No improvement
Right Answer: B
127. Directions (126-130): In the following questions, apart of the
sentences is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the
underlined part at (1), (2) and (3), which may improve the sentence.
Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed,
your answer is (4).
The colours softened as the sum went down.
(A). brightened
(B). deepened
(C). mellowed
(D). No improvement
Right Answer: B
128. Directions (126-130): In the following questions, apart of the
sentences is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the
underlined part at (1), (2) and (3), which may improve the sentence.
Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed,
your answer is (4).
The new manager is soft – spoken and is considerable to all.
(A). conceited
(B). considerate
(C). constricted
(D). No improvement
Right Answer: B
129. Directions (126-130): In the following questions, apart of the
sentences is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the
underlined part at (1), (2) and (3), which may improve the sentence.
Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed,
your answer is (4).
He hanged his portrait is the main hall.
(A). hang
(B). hung
(C). had hanged
(D). No improvement
Right Answer: B
130. Directions (126-130): In the following questions, apart of the
sentences is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the
underlined part at (1), (2) and (3), which may improve the sentence.
Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed,
your answer is (4).
We were unable to call on you because of the rains.
(A). help
(B). invite
(C). visit
(D). No improvement
Right Answer: B
131. Directions (131-135): In the following questions, a group of four
alternatives is given. Choose the one which can be substituted for the
given words/ sentences.
To feel or express disapproval of something or someone.
(A). declare
(B). deprive
(C). depreciate
(D). deprecate
Right Answer: D
132. Directions (131-135): In the following questions, a group of four
alternatives is given. Choose the one which can be substituted for the
given words/ sentences.
Handwriting that cannot be read
(A). ineligible
(B). decipher
(C). ugly
(D). illegible
Right Answer: D
133. Directions (131-135): In the following questions, a group of four
alternatives is given. Choose the one which can be substituted for the
given words/ sentences.
Animals that can live on land and in water
(A). anthropoids
(B). aquatics
(C). amphibians
(D). aquarians
Right Answer: C
134. Directions (131-135): In the following questions, a group of four
alternatives is given. Choose the one which can be substituted for the
given words/ sentences.
Easily duped or fooled
(A). insensible
(B). perceptible
(C). gullible
(D). indefensible
Right Answer: C
135. Directions (131-135): In the following questions, a group of four
alternatives is given. Choose the one which can be substituted for the
given words/ sentences.
Fear of water
(A). claustrophobia
(B). hydrophobia
(C). insomnia
(D). obsession
Right Answer: B
136. Directions (136-140): In the following question, groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly
spelt word.
(A). despondant
(B). detrimental
(C). diaphanous
(D). dilapidated
Right Answer: D
137. Directions (136-140): In the following question, groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly
spelt word.
(A). seperate
(B). confidance
(C). reference
(D). prosperous
Right Answer: D
138. Directions (136-140): In the following question, groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly
spelt word.
(A). reprimand
(B). resplendant
(C). respositary
(D). requisite
Right Answer: B
139. Directions (136-140): In the following question, groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly
spelt word.
(A). necter
(B). necassary
(C). puntuation
(D). punjent
Right Answer: D
140. Directions (136-140): In the following question, groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly
spelt word.
(A). irrelevance
(B). maintence
(C). exuberance
(D). acquaintance
Right Answer: C
141. Directions (141-150): In the following passage, some of the words
have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand
what it is about. The fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives
given.
PASSAGE
141 the common 142, the ostrich does not bury its head in the sand
to 143 danger. A ostrich can run 144 a speed of forty–five miles 145
hour, kick powerfully and 146 aggressively 147 its break. As the 148
and fastest bird in the world, it 149 need to 150 its head.
(A). In keeping with
(B). As per
(C). According to
(D). Contrary to
Right Answer: D
142. Directions (141-150): In the following passage, some of the words
have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand
what it is about. The fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives
given.
PASSAGE
141 the common 142, the ostrich does not bury its head in the sand
to 143 danger. A ostrich can run 144 a speed of forty–five miles 145
hour, kick powerfully and 146 aggressively 147 its break. As the 148
and fastest bird in the world, it 149 need to 150 its head.
(A). fact
(B). view
(C). expectation
(D). belief
Right Answer: D
143. Directions (141-150): In the following passage, some of the words
have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand
what it is about. The fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives
given.
PASSAGE
141 the common 142, the ostrich does not bury its head in the sand
to 143 danger. A ostrich can run 144 a speed of forty–five miles 145
hour, kick powerfully and 146 aggressively 147 its break. As the 148
and fastest bird in the world, it 149 need to 150 its head.
(A). resist
(B). avoid
(C). face
(D). encounter
Right Answer: D
144. Directions (141-150): In the following passage, some of the words
have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand
what it is about. The fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives
given.
PASSAGE
141 the common 142, the ostrich does not bury its head in the sand
to 143 danger. A ostrich can run 144 a speed of forty–five miles 145
hour, kick powerfully and 146 aggressively 147 its break. As the 148
and fastest bird in the world, it 149 need to 150 its head.
(A). with
(B). for
(C). at
(D). to
Right Answer: C
145. Directions (141-150): In the following passage, some of the words
have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand
what it is about. The fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives
given.
PASSAGE
141 the common 142, the ostrich does not bury its head in the sand
to 143 danger. A ostrich can run 144 a speed of forty–five miles 145
hour, kick powerfully and 146 aggressively 147 its break. As the 148
and fastest bird in the world, it 149 need to 150 its head.
(A). one
(B). per
(C). a
(D). every
Right Answer: B
146. Directions (141-150): In the following passage, some of the words
have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand
what it is about. The fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives
given.
PASSAGE
141 the common 142, the ostrich does not bury its head in the sand
to 143 danger. A ostrich can run 144 a speed of forty–five miles 145
hour, kick powerfully and 146 aggressively 147 its break. As the 148
and fastest bird in the world, it 149 need to 150 its head.
(A). peck
(B). play
(C). push
(D). poke
Right Answer: A
147. Directions (141-150): In the following passage, some of the words
have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand
what it is about. The fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives
given.
PASSAGE
141 the common 142, the ostrich does not bury its head in the sand
to 143 danger. A ostrich can run 144 a speed of forty–five miles 145
hour, kick powerfully and 146 aggressively 147 its break. As the 148
and fastest bird in the world, it 149 need to 150 its head.
(A). on
(B). through
(C). with
(D). by
Right Answer: C
148. Directions (141-150): In the following passage, some of the words
have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand
what it is about. The fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives
given.
PASSAGE
141 the common 142, the ostrich does not bury its head in the sand
to 143 danger. A ostrich can run 144 a speed of forty–five miles 145
hour, kick powerfully and 146 aggressively 147 its break. As the 148
and fastest bird in the world, it 149 need to 150 its head.
(A). larger
(B). largest
(C). more large
(D). largest
Right Answer: B
149. Directions (141-150): In the following passage, some of the words
have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand
what it is about. The fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives
given.
PASSAGE
141 the common 142, the ostrich does not bury its head in the sand
to 143 danger. A ostrich can run 144 a speed of forty–five miles 145
hour, kick powerfully and 146 aggressively 147 its break. As the 148
and fastest bird in the world, it 149 need to 150 its head.
(A). doesn’t
(B). did
(C). does
(D). didn’t
Right Answer: A
150. Directions (141-150): In the following passage, some of the words
have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand
what it is about. The fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives
given.
PASSAGE
141 the common 142, the ostrich does not bury its head in the sand
to 143 danger. A ostrich can run 144 a speed of forty–five miles 145
hour, kick powerfully and 146 aggressively 147 its break. As the 148
and fastest bird in the world, it 149 need to 150 its head.
(A). put
(B). cover
(C). shield
(D). bury
Right Answer: D
151. If
= 1.732, is given, then the value of (A). 11.732
(B). 13.928
(C). 12.928
(D). 13.925
Right Answer: B
152.
is equal to(A).
(B).
(C).
(D).
Right Answer: C
153. The number, which is to be added to 0.01 to get 1.1. is
(A). 1.11
(B). 1.09
(C). 1
(D). 0.10
Right Answer: B
154. If n+
= 97 then the value of n is(A). 40
(B). 42
(C). 44
(D). 46
Right Answer: B
155. 25, 50, 30, 45, 35, 40, ?
(A). 30
(B). 35
(C). 40
(D). 45
Right Answer: C
156. [1 × 2 + 2 × 3 + 3 × 4 × 5 + 5 × 6 + 6 × 7 + 7 × 8 + 8 × 9 + 9 × 10 + 10 × 11] is equal to
(A). 770
(B). 660
(C). 440
(D). 330
Right Answer: C
157.
is equal to(A). 56
(B). 44
(C). 50
(D). 48
Right Answer: B
158. If x, y and z are real numbers such that
+ = 0 then (x + y + z) is equal to(A). -12
(B). 0
(C). 8
(D). 12
Right Answer: D
159.
is equal to(A). 385
(B). 2916
(C). 540
(D). 384
Right Answer: D
160. The value of
(A). 4
(B).
(C). 270
(D).
Right Answer: B
161. The product of two numbers is 120 and the sum of their squares is 289. The sum of the two numbers is
(A). 23
(B). 7
(C). 13
(D). 169
Right Answer: A
162. Numbers 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, …, 196, 198, 200 are multiplied together. The number of zeros and the end of the product on the right will be equal to—
(A). 21
(B). 22
(C). 24
(D). 25
Right Answer: C
163. A takes twice as much time as B and thrice as much as C to complete a piece work. They together complete the work in 1 day. In what time, will A alone complete the work.
(A). 9 days
(B). 5 days
(C). 6 days
(D). 4 days
Right Answer: C
164. A and B together can do a place of work in 5 days and A alone can do it in 8 days. B alone can do the same piece of work in
(A).
(B).
(C).
(D).
Right Answer: C
165. 2 men and 1 women together can complete a piece of work in 14 days, while 4 women and 2 men together can do it in 8 days, how much should a women get per day?
(A). Rs. 400
(B). Rs. 450
(C). Rs. 480
(D). Rs. 360
Right Answer: A
166. If the lengths of the three sides of a triangle are 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm, then the length of the median to its greatest side is
(A). 8 cm
(B). 6 cm
(C). 5 cm
(D). 4.8 cm
Right Answer: C
167. The circumference of a circle is 11 cm and the angle of a sector of the circle is 60o. The area of the sector is
(A).
(B).
(C).
(D).
Right Answer: A
168. The perimeter of a rhombus is 100 cm. if one of its diagonals is 14 cm, then the area of he rhombus is
(A).
(B).
(C).
(D).
Right Answer: C
169. The surface areas of two spheres are in the ration 4 : 9. Their volumes will be in the ratio
(A). 2 : 3
(B). 4 : 9
(C). 8 : 27
(D). 64 : 729
Right Answer: C
170. The height of the cone is 30 cm. A small cone is cut off at the top by a plane parallel to its base. If its volume is
of the volume of the cone, at what height, above the base, is the section made?(A). 6 cm
(B). 8 cm
(C). 10 cm
(D). 20 cm
Right Answer: D
171. The discount series 10%, 20%, 40% is equivalent to a single discount of
(A). 50%
(B). 56.8%
(C). 60%
(D). 62.28%
Right Answer: B
172. A train is travelling at the rate of 45krn/hr. How many seconds, it will take to cover a distance of
km ?(A). 36
(B). 64
(C). 90
(D). 120
Right Answer: B
173. A shopkeeper allows 4% discount on his marked price. If the cost price of an article is Rs. 100 and he has to make a profit of 20%, then his marked price must be
(A). Rs. 96
(B). Rs. 120
(C). Rs. 125
(D). Rs. 130
Right Answer: C
174. If A : B = 3 : 5 and B : C = 4 : 7, Then A : B : C is
(A). 6 : 9 : 14
(B). 3 : 5 : 7
(C). 12 : 20 : 21
(D). 12 : 20 : 35
Right Answer: D
175. If
, then is equal to(A). 2
(B). 4
(C). 5
(D). 6
Right Answer: A
176. The ratio of the quantities of sugar, in which sugar costing Rs. 20 per kg. and Rs. 15 per kg. should be mixed so that there will be neither loss nor gain on selling the mixed sugar at the rate of Rs. 16 per kg. is
(A). 2 : 1
(B). 1 : 2
(C). 4 : 1
(D). 1 : 4
Right Answer: D
177. A sum of Rs 86, 700 is to be divided among A, B and C in such a manner that for every rupee that A gets, B gets 90 paise and for every rupee that B gets. C gets 100 paise. B’s share will be
(A). Rs. 26, 010
(B). Rs. 27, 000
(C). Rs. 28, 000
(D). Rs. 28, 090
Right Answer: B
178. Two types of alloys posses gold and silver in the ratio of 7 : 22 and 21 : 37. In what ratio should these alloys be mixed so as to have a new alloy in which gold and silver would exist in the ratio 25 : 62?
(A). 13 : 8
(B). 8 : 13
(C). 13 : 12
(D). 6 : 9
Right Answer: A
179. The average of consecutive odd numbers is 53. The least odd number is
(A). 22
(B). 27
(C). 35
(D). 45
Right Answer: D
180. The average age of group of 20 girls is 15 years and that of another group of 25 boys it is 24 years. The average age of the two groups mixed together is
(A). 19.5 years
(B). 20 years
(C). 21 years
(D). 21.5 years
Right Answer: B
181. Five years ago, the average age of P, Q and R was 25 years and seven years ago, the average age of Q and R was 20 years. The present age of P is
(A). 36 years
(B). 29 years
(C). 24 years
(D). 21 years
Right Answer: A
182. The average per day income of A, B and C is Rs. 450. If the average per day income of A and B be Rs. 400 and that of B and C be Rs. 430, the per day income of B is
(A). Rs. 300
(B). Rs. 310
(C). Rs. 415
(D). Rs. 425
Right Answer: B
183. A man sold an article at a loss of 20%. If he had sold it for Rs. 50 more, he would have gained 5%. The cost price of the article was
(A). Rs. 250
(B). Rs. 300
(C). Rs. 180
(D). Rs. 200
Right Answer: D
184. By selling 14 watches of equal cost price at the rate of Rs. 450 each, there is a profit equal to the cost price of 4 watches. The cost price of a watch is
(A). Rs. 350
(B). Rs. 360
(C). Rs. 375
(D). Rs. 400
Right Answer: A
185. A person bought two articles A and B for Rs 5,500. He sold A at 20% profit and B at 10% loss. He thus gained 2% on his outlay. The cost price of A was
(A). Rs. 3,000
(B). Rs. 2,500
(C). Rs. 2,000
(D). Rs. 3,500
Right Answer: C
186. If the total cost of 73 articles having equal cost is Rs. 5,110 and the total selling price of 89 such articles is Rs. 5,607, then in the transaction, there will be
(A). a loss of 15%
(B). a gain of 10%
(C). a loss of 10%
(D). a gain of 15%
Right Answer: C
187. What was the percentage increase of disbursement of loans of all banks together from 1997 to 1998 ?
(A). 6%
(B).
(C).
(D).
Right Answer: B
188. Nitin’s salary was reduced by 10% and then the reduced salary was increased by 10%. His new salary in comparison with his original salary is
(A). the same
(B). 1% more
(C). 1% less
(D). 5% less
Right Answer: C
189. The number of seats in a cinema hall is increased by 25%. The cost of each ticket is also increased by 10%. The effect of these changes on the revenue collection will be an increase of
(A). 37.5%
(B). 45.5%
(C). 47.5%
(D). 29.5%
Right Answer: A
190. A man spends 40% of his monthly salary on food and one-third of the remaining on transport. If he saves Rs. 4,500 per month, which is equal to half the balance after spending on food and transport, his monthly salary is
(A). Rs. 11,250
(B). Rs. 22,500
(C). Rs. 25,000
(D). Rs. 45,000
Right Answer: B
191. If 80% of a number added to 80 gives the result as the number itself, then the number is
(A). 200
(B). 320
(C). 400
(D). 480
Right Answer: C
192. A bus moving as a speed of 45 km/hr overtakes a truck 150 meters ahead going in the same direction in 30 seconds. The speed of the truck is
(A). 27 km/hr
(B). 24 km/hr
(C). 25 km/hr
(D). 28 km/hr
Right Answer: A
193. A train crosses a pole in 15seconds and a 100 meters long platform in 25 seconds. The length of the trains is
(A). 125 m
(B). 130 m
(C). 150 m
(D). 175 m
Right Answer: C
194. In how much time, will a sum of money become double of itself at 15% per annum simple interest?
(A).
(B).
(C).
(D).
Right Answer: D
195. The difference between compound and simple interest on a sum of money for 2 years at 8% per annum is Rs 768. The sum is
(A). Rs. 1,00,200
(B). Rs. 1,30,000
(C). Rs. 1,20,000
(D). Rs. 1,02,000
Right Answer: C
196. The difference between compound interest on Rs. 5,000 for
years at 8% per annum, according as the interest in payable half yearly or yearly is(A). Rs. 8.16
(B). Rs. 8
(C). Rs. 4.08
(D). Rs. 4
Right Answer: A
197. Directions (197-200): The pie-chart given below shows the marks
obtained by a student in an examination. If the total marks obtained
by him in the examination were 540, answer the questions given
below based on this pie chart.
In which subject, did the student obtain 105 marks?
(A). Maths
(B). Social studies
(C). Science
(D). Hindi
Right Answer: D
198. Directions (197-200): The pie-chart given below shows the marks
obtained by a student in an examination. If the total marks obtained
by him in the examination were 540, answer the questions given
below based on this pie chart.
What is the central angle corresponding of Science?
(A).
(B).
(C).
(D).
Right Answer: B
199. Directions (197-200): The pie-chart given below shows the marks
obtained by a student in an examination. If the total marks obtained
by him in the examination were 540, answer the questions given
below based on this pie chart.
How many more marks were obtained by the student in Maths than those in Hindi?
(A). 30
(B). 20
(C). 10
(D). 40
Right Answer: A
200. Directions (197-200): The pie-chart given below shows the marks
obtained by a student in an examination. If the total marks obtained
by him in the examination were 540, answer the questions given
below based on this pie chart.
How many marks were obtained by the student in Science?
(A). 130
(B). 120
(C). 125
(D). 140
Right Answer: B
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