1. 'Political Science begins and ends with the state'. Whose definition is this
(A). David Easton
(B). Maclver
(C). Garner
(D). Gilchrist
Right Answer:
2. 'State comes into existence for the sake of life and continues for the sake of good life.' Whose statement is this
(A). Plato
(B). Aristotle
(C). Rousseau
(D). Laski
Right Answer:
3. Who is the author of 'Republic'
(A). Hobbes
(B). Locke
(C). Plato
(D). Aristotle
Right Answer:
4. Which of the following theories consider state as an instrument of exploitation
(A). Individualistic
(B). Pluralistic
(C). Communist
(D). Facist
Right Answer:
5. Who propounded the concept of General will
(A). Rousseau
(B). Aristotle
(C). Bentham
(D). Hobbes
Right Answer:
6. ''State is the march of God on earth.'' This statement is given by which thinker
(A). Plato
(B). Rousseau
(C). Hegal
(D). Green
Right Answer:
7. According to the individualistic theory, which of the following function should not be performed by the state
(A). to protect the state and its citizens from external enemies
(B). to provide internal security
(C). to implement the constitution
(D). to control the economic sphere
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8. Who propounded the theory of `the survival of the fittest' in the social sphere
(A). Herbert Spencer
(B). Bentham
(C). Green
(D). Hegal
Right Answer:
9. Which of the following is not a major principle of socialism
(A). Socialism aims at equality
(B). Socialism gives importance to
(C). Socialism favours social control of means of production
(D). Socialism promotes cooperation in all spheres of social life jkWYl
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10. Who propounded the theory of proportional equality
(A). Aristotle
(B). Rousseau
(C). Marx
(D). Rauls
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11. Who was the foremost to propound the concept of positive liberty
(A). Hobbes
(B). Laski
(C). T. H. Green
(D). Karl Marx
Right Answer:
12. "Man is born free, but he is everywhere in chains." Whose statement is this
(A). Locke
(B). Rousseau
(C). Bentham
(D). J. S. Mill
Right Answer:
13. Who is the author of the book 'On Liberty'
(A). J. S. Mill
(B). Marx
(C). T. H. Green
(D). Adam Smith
Right Answer:
14. "Political liberty in the absence of economic equality is a mere myth." Whose statement is this
(A). C. E. M. Joad
(B). Green
(C). Laski
(D). Rousseau
Right Answer:
15. "Over Himself, over his mind and body, the individual is sovereign". Whose statement is this
(A). Willoughby
(B). De Toqueville
(C). Lord Acton
(D). J. S. Mill
Right Answer:
16. "Liberty is the eager maintenance of that atmosphere in which men have the opportunity to be their best selves." Whose opinion is this
(A). T. H. Green
(B). H. J. Laski
(C). J. S. Mill
(D). Hobbhouse
Right Answer:
17. Which of the following rights is not amongst the political rights
(A). Right to vote
(B). Right to leave the state
(C). Right to be elected
(D). Right to criticize the work of the government
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18. "The passion for equality made vain the hopes for liberty." Whose statement is this
(A). Lord Acton
(B). De Toqueville
(C). Laski
(D). Marx
Right Answer:
19. Which of the following is considered to be one of the methods to achieve economic equality
(A). Fair distribution of wealth
(B). Complete freedom to all in the economic sphere
(C). Non-interference of the state in the economic sphere
(D). Equal pay for all
Right Answer:
20. Which of the following view point is correct regarding social inequality
(A). Inequality is divinely ordained
(B). Individual is himself responsible for inequality
(C). Inequality is natural
(D). by making changes in the social order unjust inequalities may be over come
Right Answer:
21. Which of the following is a characteristic of positive liberty
(A). opportunity for self realization
(B). absence of restraints
(C). fulfilment of desires
(D). freedom to do anything
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22. Who has divided human actions into selfregarding and others regarding actions
(A). Bentham
(B). Mill
(C). Bosanquet
(D). Green
Right Answer:
23. Human Rights are given to people because of following reason
(A). Since they are citizens
(B). Since they are social beings
(C). Since they are given by United Nations
(D). Since they are human beings
Right Answer:
24. By Justice Plato meant
(A). Decisions of law courts
(B). Justice in the interest of the strong
(C). Justice in interest of the weak
(D). Harmony of functions of classes in the society
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25. According to Seeley Political Science is related to one of the following
(A). to state
(B). to government
(C). to history
(D). to economics
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26. Traditional Political Science gives emphasis on which of the following
(A). Behaviour of the people
(B). Philosophical method
(C). Research and theory
(D). Scientific method
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27. Marxists emphasize on the following aspect of the state
(A). State is a moral institution
(B). State is a class based institution
(C). State is a natural institution
(D). State is an administrative institution
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28. One of the following is not appropriate for behavioural approach
(A). General rules may be examined
(B). Scientific analysis of facts and datas
(C). Emphasis on values and ethical principles
(D). Systematic and pure research
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29. Who was the first to propound the principle of distributive justice
(A). Aristotle
(B). Augustine
(C). Rawls
(D). Barker
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30. Which of the following is emphasized by the modern concept of justice
(A). Development of moral man
(B). Social transformation for just order
(C). Give full liberty to all individuals
(D). to stop state interference in the economic sphere
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31. Which of the following is closely related to rule of law
(A). Military rule
(B). Presidential System
(C). Constitutionalism
(D). Federalism
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32. According to whom rule of law is better than rule of man
(A). Plato
(B). Socrates
(C). Aristotle
(D). Marx
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33. What efforts should be made by the citizens to protect the environment
(A). Every effort to control population
(B). to protect and encourage growth of forests, trees and natural environment
(C). to protect and keep rivers and sources of water free from pollution
(D). All of the above
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34. What are the important legal duties of a citizen
(A). Obey the laws
(B). Patriotism towards ones country
(C). to pay taxes
(D). All of the above
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35. "Perform your duties and rights will automatically follow." Whose statement is this
(A). Jawaharlal Nehru
(B). Mahatama Gandhi
(C). Lenin
(D). Mao
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36. Which Part of the Constitution of India deals with fundamental duties of citizens
(A). Part III
(B). Part IV - A
(C). Part V
(D). Part VI - A
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37. In which year was the Citizenship Act passed in India
(A). 1949
(B). 1950
(C). 1955
(D). 1956
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38. Which of the following element does not promote nationalism
(A). Common culture and traditions
(B). Geographical unity
(C). Feeling of regionalism
(D). Common economic interest
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39. Which of the following viewpoint is true
(A). Nationalism is a hindrance in the feeling of internationalism
(B). Internationalism diminishes the feeling of nationalism
(C). Extreme nationalism is a threat for international peace
(D). Successful internationalism may be organized on the basis of healthy nationalism
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40. Who propounded the theory of welfare economics and social choice
(A). Amartya Sen
(B). Bimal Jalan
(C). K. N. Raj
(D). Adam Smith
Right Answer:
41. Secularism as given in the Indian Constitution does not mean one of the following
(A). State gives equal respect to all religions
(B). State does not distinguish among the religions while giving economic aid
(C). State reserves seats in the parliament for people of different religions
(D). State gives the right to all religions to manage their affairs
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42. By which amendment to the Indian Constitution the word secular was added
(A). 44th Amendment
(B). 42nd Amendment
(C). 52nd Amendment
(D). 54th Amendment
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43. Marxist theory of internationalism is based on which of the following elements
(A). Class
(B). Peace
(C). Human Rights
(D). National Interest
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44. When was the United Nations Organisation established
(A). 24 October, 1945
(B). 24 October, 1946
(C). 24 October, 1947 1948
(D). 24 October, 1948
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45. Which of the following is not a permanent member of the Security Council
(A). United States of America
(B). Great Britain
(C). France
(D). India
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46. What is a major characteristic feature of Non-alignment
(A). Not to associate with any military block
(B). To transform developing countries into nuclear powers
(C). To develop a third force
(D). To oppose the group of Nuclear powers
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47. Which of the following has been established by the Indian Constitution
(A). Planning Commission
(B). National Development Council
(C). Regional Councils
(D). None of the above
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48. Which articles of the Charter of United Nations Organization deal with collective Security
(A). Articles 5 to 10
(B). Articles 10 to 16
(C). Articles 12 to 18
(D). Articles 16 to 21
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49. The basis for ascertaining schedule tribes has been
(A). Region and caste
(B). Caste and religion
(C). Language and Region
(D). Tradition and economic condition
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50. Planning Commission has determined poverty line in rural areas on the basis of how many calories per person per day
(A). 2100 Calories
(B). 2200 Calories
(C). 2400 Calories
(D). 2600 Calories
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51. On whose recommendation was the Constituent Assembly of India formed
(A). Cripps Mission
(B). Cabinet Mission Plan
(C). Simon Commission
(D). Mountbatten Plan
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52. When was the first meeting of the Constituent Assembly of India held
(A). 1 December] 1946
(B). 9 December] 1946
(C). 26 January] 1947
(D). 15 August] 1947
Right Answer:
53. Who presented the 'Objective Resolution' in the Constituent Assembly
(A). Sachchidanand Sinha
(B). Mahatama Gandhi
(C). Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar
(D). Jawaharlal Nehru
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54. Who among the following was not a member of the 'Drafting Committee'
(A). N. Gopalaswami Ayangar
(B). Alladi Krishnaswami
(C). Mohammad Saidullah
(D). Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Right Answer:
55. Which is the greatest source of the Indian Constitution
(A). The Government of India Act, 1935
(B). British Constitution
(C). Thoughts of Ambedkar
(D). Thoughts of Gandhi
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56. From which country the framers of the Indian Constitution borrowed the Parliamentary system
(A). America
(B). Britain
(C). Canada
(D). Ireland
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57. There are how many methods of amending the Indian Constitution
(A). One
(B). Two
(C). Three
(D). Four
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58. Which right was deleted as fundamental right by the 44th Amendment to the Constitution
(A). Right against exploitation
(B). Right to equality
(C). Right to property
(D). Right to freedom
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59. Which of the following rights now cannot be suspended even during emergency
(A). Right to life and personal liberty
(B). Freedom of residence
(C). Freedom of profession
(D). None of the above
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60. Which article of the Constitution provides for the Right to constitutional Remedies
(A). Article 30
(B). Article 32
(C). Article 33
(D). Article 34
Right Answer:
61. Directive Principles of the state are mentioned in which articles of the Indian Constitution
(A). Articles 33 to 45
(B). Articles 36 to 51
(C). Articles 40 to 57
(D). Articles 58 to 69
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62. Which part of the Indian Constitution has given the responsibility to the state to promote international peace and security
(A). Fundamental Rights
(B). Directive Principles
(C). Emergency Provisions
(D). First Schedule
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63. Who is empowered to issue writs according to the Indian Constitution
(A). Supreme Court
(B). High Court
(C). Subordinate Court
(D). Supreme Court and High Court
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64. In India the abolition or establishment of the State Legislative council is done by whom
(A). By the President
(B). By the Governor
(C). By the Parliament
(D). By the Parliament on the recommendation of the State Legislative Assembly
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65. Which of the following states have bicameral legislature
(A). Bihar, West Bengal, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh
(B). Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Jammu-Kashmir
(C). Jammu-Kashmir, Punjab, Haryana, Bihar, Karnataka
(D). Karnataka, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu
Right Answer:
66. The Election Commission works under which of the following
(A). Home Ministry
(B). Law Ministry
(C). Central Secretariat
(D). None of the above
Right Answer:
67. Who is not empowered to participate in the election of the President
(A). Elected members of Rajya Sabha
(B). Elected members of Lok Sabha
(C). Elected Members of Legislative Assembly
(D). Elected members of Legislative Council
Right Answer:
68. Which amendment has added in the Indian Constitution that the President can declare emergency only on a written communication of a cabinet decision
(A). 42nd Amendment
(B). 44th Amendment
(C). 52nd Amendment
(D). 54th Amendment
Right Answer:
69. President is bound to accept the recommendation of the cabinet by the following article
(A). 74 (a)
(B). 74 (b)
(C). 76 (a)
(D). 76 (b)
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70. Under which article the President may proclaim emergency in a state if there is a constitutional breakdown
(A). Article 352
(B). Article 356
(C). Article 360
(D). Article 365
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71. What is the tenure of the Council of Ministers
(A). 5 Years
(B). 2 Years
(C). Not fixed
(D). 4 Years
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72. "Cabinet is the pivot around which the whole political machinery revolves." Whose statement is this
(A). Lowell
(B). Sir John Marriot
(C). Lord Morley
(D). Ramsay Muir
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73. If a member of Council of Minister is not a member of any house of the Parliament then what is the maximum period for which he may remain a minister
(A). 2 Months
(B). 6 Months
(C). 10 Months
(D). One Year
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74. To whom is the Council of Ministers collectively responsible in India
(A). President
(B). Prime Minister
(C). Lok Sabha
(D). Rajya Sabha
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75. The Rajya Sabha may consider a money bill for following period
(A). 10 Days
(B). 14 fnu
(C). 20 fnu
(D). 1 ekg
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76. What is the tenure of the members of Rajya Sabha
(A). 2 Years
(B). 4 Years
(C). 5 Years
(D). 6 Years
Right Answer:
77. Question hour means
(A). The first hour of the sitting of both the houses
(B). The last hour of the sitting of Lok Sabha
(C). The second hour of sitting of both the houses
(D). Afternoon session in both the houses
Right Answer:
78. Ordinance means
(A). Order passed by Parliament
(B). Order passed by President
(C). Order passed by the Supreme court
(D). Order passed by the Speaker of Lok Sabha
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79. Which category of the society has got the privilege to be nominated by the President
(A). Schedule Caste
(B). Schedule Tribe
(C). Other Backward Classes
(D). Anglo-Indian Community
Right Answer:
80. Whose prior permission is required before presenting a money-bill in the Lok Sabha
(A). Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B). Prime Minister
(C). Finance Minister
(D). President
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81. To whom is the report of the Public Accounts Committee presented
(A). To Lok Sabha
(B). To President
(C). To Prime Minister
(D). To Finance Minister
Right Answer:
82. Which of the following statement is wrong
(A). Joint meeting is convened in case of deadlock between the houses of the state Legislature
(B). Joint meeting is covened in case of deadlock between the houses of Parliament
(C). Governor may issue ordinance in a state
(D). The Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor
Right Answer:
83. Prohibition is a writ issued by the Supreme Court or the High Court which
(A). Restricts the police from confining any person
(B). Effects the production and distribution of liquor
(C). Restricts an administrative officer from doing a certain work
(D). Restricts a quasi-judicial body to perform certain act
Right Answer:
84. There is one Chief Justice and how many other judges in the Supreme Court
(A). 15
(B). 20
(C). 24
(D). 25
Right Answer:
85. There is provision for the appointment of ad-hoc judge in which of the following court
(A). Supreme Court
(B). High Court
(C). District Court
(D). All of the above
Right Answer:
86. Judicial Activism in India is connected with
(A). Committed Judiciary
(B). Public-Interest Litigation
(C). Judicial Review
(D). Judicial Independence
Right Answer:
87. Which article of the Constitution empowers the Parliament to make laws on a subject in the State List
(A). Article 240
(B). Article 249
(C). Article 252
(D). Article 256
Right Answer:
88. Which of the following subject is in the concurrent list of India
(A). Citizenship
(B). Inter-State Rivers
(C). Labour Unions
(D). All India Service
Right Answer:
89. Which of the following is not related to the Union List
(A). Defence
(B). Foreign Affairs
(C). Railways
(D). Agriculture
Right Answer:
90. Which State was constituted by passing a bill in the Parliament in November, 2000
(A). Chattisgarh
(B). Uttaranchal
(C). Jharkhand
(D). All of the above
Right Answer:
91. Which state has been accorded special position in the Indian Federation by Article 370
(A). Punjab
(B). Nagaland
(C). Jammu-Kashmir
(D). Sikkim
Right Answer:
92. Who has called the Indian Federal System quasi-federal
(A). Austin
(B). Finer
(C). K. C. Wheare
(D). Appleby
Right Answer:
93. Panchayat System was started on the recommendation of which committee
(A). Rajmannar Committee
(B). Santhanam Committee
(C). Ashok Mehta Committee
(D). Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
Right Answer:
94. By which amendment of the Constitution has Panchayati Raj been given constitutional basis
(A). 65th Amendment
(B). 72nd Amendment
(C). 73rd Amendment
(D). 81st Amendment
Right Answer:
95. How much representation do women have in Panchayats
(A). 20 Percent
(B). 25 Percent
(C). 27 Percent
(D). 1/3 rd of total members
Right Answer:
96. Judicial Review is that power of the Constitution by which it can declare unconstitutional
(A). Law made by the legislature
(B). Order of the executive
(C). Decision of a lower court
(D). Legislative act or any executive order
Right Answer:
97. Who is the Chairman of the National Development Council
(A). President
(B). Prime Minister
(C). Home Minister
(D). Finance Minister
Right Answer:
98. Which of the following is a national party
(A). Communist Party of India
(B). Telgue Desam
(C). National Conference
(D). Dravid Munetra Kargham (D. M. K.)
Right Answer:
99. Who is called the father of the Indian National Congress
(A). Dadabhai Naoroji
(B). A. O. Hume
(C). Surendranath Banerjee
(D). M. K. Gandhi
Right Answer:
100. When was the Quit India Movement started
(A). In 1942
(B). In 1943
(C). In 1944
(D). In 1945
Right Answer:
101. Which of the following is not a principle of Panchsheel
(A). Not to attack on each other territory
(B). Not to interfere in each others internal affairs
(C). To establish military relation with each other
(D). Peaceful co-existence
Right Answer:
102. Which is one of the basic feature of the Indian Foreign Policy
(A). Isolation
(B). Collective Security
(C). Military Grouping
(D). Non-alignment
Right Answer:
103. When was the Shimla Agreement between India and Pakistan signed
(A). 1965
(B). 1970
(C). 1972
(D). 1975
Right Answer:
104. Pakistan got the membership of which organization in 1955
(A). NATO
(B). WARSAW
(C). CENTO
(D). ASEAN
Right Answer:
105. Which leaders signed the historical treaty regarding the distribution of Ganga water at Farakka in December 1996
(A). Sheikh Hasina-Indra Kumar Gujral
(B). Sheikh Hasina - H. D. Devgorah
(C). Khalida Zia - Indra Kumar Gujral
(D). Khalida Zia - H. D. Devgorah
Right Answer:
106. Sir Creek dispute is a disputed issue between which countries
(A). India - China
(B). India - Sri Lanka
(C). India - Bangladesh
(D). India - Pakistan
Right Answer:
107. Who announced the 'Lahore Declaration'
(A). Rajiv - Benajir
(B). Vajpayee - Nawaj Sharif
(C). Gujral - Nawaj Sharif
(D). Devgorah - Nawaj Sharif
Right Answer:
108. Mc Mohan line is drawn between which countries
(A). India - Pakistan
(B). India - China
(C). India - Bangladesh
(D). India - Nepal
Right Answer:
109. To which country did India send its Peacekeeping forces in 1987
(A). Nepal
(B). Sri Lanka
(C). Bangladesh
(D). Maldive
Right Answer:
110. Between which countries there is problem of Chakma refugees
(A). Nepal
(B). Sri Lanka
(C). Bangladesh
(D). Maldive
Right Answer:
111. When did India carry out the first underground Nuclear Test
(A). June, 1970
(B). June, 1971
(C). May, 1974
(D). May, 1975
Right Answer:
112. When was the Indo-soviet Union friendship Treaty signed
(A). August, 1970
(B). August, 1971
(C). September] 1972
(D). September] 1975
Right Answer:
113. India transferred the 'Tin Bigha corridor' to which country in 1992
(A). Bhutan
(B). Nepal
(C). Sri Lanka
(D). Bangladesh
Right Answer:
114. Which country has built a military base in 'Diego Garcia' in the Indian ocean
(A). America
(B). Britain
(C). France
(D). China
Right Answer:
115. With which country has India signed the Civil Nuclear power Cooperation Deal
(A). Britain
(B). France
(C). America
(D). Japan
Right Answer:
116. Where is the headquarter of the United Nations organization situated
(A). in New York
(B). in London
(C). in Paris
(D). in Washington
Right Answer:
117. Where was the first conference of the non-aligned nations held
(A). Kahira
(B). Lusaka
(C). Belgrade
(D). Algiers
Right Answer:
118. Which is the center of the operation of the terrorist outfit of Taliban
(A). Iran
(B). Saudi Arabia
(C). Pakistan
(D). Afghanistan
Right Answer:
119. When did China attack India
(A). 1956
(B). 1958
(C). 1960
(D). 1962
Right Answer:
120. Who was the Chairman of the seventh non-aligned summit
(A). Jawaharlal Nehru
(B). Fiedel Castro
(C). Naseer
(D). Indira Gandhi
Right Answer:
121. Who for the first time proposed the concept of south Asian Regional Cooperation
(A). Jawaharlal Nehru
(B). Zia-ur-Rehman
(C). Mamoon Abdul Gayum
(D). Jigme Sigme Wangchuk
Right Answer:
122. Which of the following country became the eighth member of SAARC
(A). Myanmar
(B). Tibet
(C). Afghanistan
(D). China
Right Answer:
123. The SAARC countries take decision by which method
(A). by majority
(B). by 2/3rd majority
(C). by 3/4th majority
(D). By consensus
Right Answer:
124. With which country India signed the transit treaty in January 1999
(A). Nepal
(B). Bhutan
(C). China
(D). Pakistan
Right Answer:
125. Which country sent its seventh fleet during the Indo-Pak war
(A). America
(B). China
(C). Soviet Union
(D). France
Right Answer:
126. India did not sign the Nuclear nonproliferation Treaty, 1968 because
(A). It bans underground nuclear tests
(B). It bans nuclear tests in the outer space
(C). It bans nuclear tests in the sea bed
(D). It makes distinction between the nuclear powers and the non-nuclear powers
Right Answer:
127. The American Senate did not ratify which treaty in October 1999
(A). C. T. B. T.
(B). START - I
(C). START - II
(D). F. M. C. T.
Right Answer:
128. With whom is SAFTA related
(A). ASEAN
(B). SAARC
(C). World Trade Organisation
(D). United Nations Organisation
Right Answer:
129. The result of Urugway round of talks was
(A). Establishment of Asia Pacific economic co-operation
(B). Establishment of NAFTA
(C). G-77 was established
(D). World Trade Organisation was established
Right Answer:
130. Globalization presents the integration of technological, economic and cultural progress. It has been possible due to following reason
(A). Power of America
(B). Nationalism
(C). Mutual dependence
(D). Poverty
Right Answer:
131. How many members are there in the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)
(A). 7
(B). 8
(C). 9
(D). 10
Right Answer:
132. Which of the following is not a characteristic of liberalism
(A). to consider state as an end
(B). to consider individual as an end
(C). importance to rights of individual
(D). Importance to constitutionalism
Right Answer:
133. Who is considered the foremost propounder of Liberalism
(A). John Locke
(B). Hobbes
(C). Rousseau
(D). Green
Right Answer:
134. What is the most important principle of liberalism
(A). equality
(B). social justice
(C). liberty
(D). Economic Justice
Right Answer:
135. Which of the following is not related to Marxism
(A). Surplus Value
(B). Economic interpretation of history
(C). Non-interference
(D). Class-struggle
Right Answer:
136. Who among the following advocated cultural revolution in socialism
(A). Karl Marx
(B). Mao-tse-tung
(C). Lenin
(D). Stalin
Right Answer:
137. How many countries are there in G-15
(A). 15
(B). 16
(C). 17
(D). 28
Right Answer:
138. From when did the process of liberalization begin in India
(A). After 1991
(B). After 1980
(C). After 1970
(D). After 1950
Right Answer:
139. What is north-south dialogue
(A). Government and non-governmental organisation
(B). Eastern countries and western countries
(C). Rich countries and the developing countries
(D). None of the above
Right Answer:
140. "State exists merely because crime exists. The principal function of the state is, therefore, to protect and restraint and not to foster and promote." The above statement corresponds to which theory
(A). Liberalism
(B). Socialism
(C). Anarchism
(D). Facism
Right Answer:
141. Which thinker has advocated that the economic sphere be kept free from state interference
(A). Laski
(B). Bosanquet
(C). Adam Smith
(D). Mill
Right Answer:
142. Fabian socialism developed in which country
(A). Germany
(B). France
(C). England
(D). America
Right Answer:
143. Who among the following propounded the theory of guild socialism
(A). Bertand Russell
(B). Robert Oven
(C). G. D. H. Cole
(D). Gramshi
Right Answer:
144. According to Marxism which of the following provides impetus to social development
(A). Consumerism
(B). Communist Party
(C). Class-Struggle
(D). Peace
Right Answer:
145. One of the characteristic of socialist society is
(A). Socialisation of means of production
(B). Social reforms
(C). Participation of women in affairs of government
(D). Industrialization
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146. By trusteeship Gandhi meant that
(A). Nationalization of industries
(B). Individual ownership and social consumption
(C). Extension of panchayat System
(D). Participation of women in governance
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147. Who was the author of 'Hind Swaraj'
(A). Gandhi
(B). Nehru
(C). Tilak
(D). Gokhlae
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148. Who was the chief of the Indian National Army
(A). Aurobindo Ghosh
(B). Subhas Chandra Bose
(C). Lala Lajpat Rai
(D). Raja Ram Mohan Roy
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149. Who is the author of the book 'The Untouchables'
(A). Swami Dayanand Saraswati
(B). Swami Vivekanand
(C). B. R. Ambedkar
(D). M. K. Gandhi
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150. Who was the political teacher of Mahatma Gandhi
(A). Lala Lajpat Rai
(B). Lokmanya Tilak
(C). Dadabhai Naoroji
(D). Gopalkrishna Gokhlae
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151. 'What motherhood is to woman, war is to man.' Whose statement is this
(A). Mussolini
(B). Hitler
(C). Napolean
(D). Bismark
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152. 'Everything is inside the state, nothing is outside the state, State is supreme'. This characteristic of the State is found in which political theory
(A). Socialism
(B). Communism
(C). Liberalism
(D). Facism
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153. Which thinker has propounded the concept of 'New Humanism'
(A). Ambedkar
(B). Mahatama Gandhi
(C). M. N. Roy
(D). Vinoba Bhave
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154. Who among the following criticized the French Revolution
(A). Adam Smith
(B). Burke
(C). Montesqui
(D). Rousseau
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155. Parliamentary System is based on which important principle
(A). Parliament represents the people
(B). Executive is responsible to the legislature
(C). Supremacy of judiciary
(D). Separation of power
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156. Which of the following is not true
(A). There is rule of law in Britain
(B). There is sovereignty of Parliament in Britain
(C). There is Federalism in Britain
(D). The king is a nominal head in Britain
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157. Which of the following is not true about the United States of America
(A). Constitution is the highest law of the land
(B). President may be removed by impeachment
(C). Members of the House of Representative are elected for two years
(D). There is provision for single citizenship in United States of America
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158. In which of the following countries, States have been given equal representation in the second Chamber
(A). India
(B). America
(C). Canada
(D). Australia
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159. Which of the following is true
(A). Sovereignty resides in the State and is exercised by the State
(B). Sovereignty resides in the State and is exercised by the government
(C). Sovereignty resides in the State and is exercised by the minister
(D). Sovereignty resides in the people and exercised by Peoples representatives
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160. Which of the following is a major benefit of the two-party system
(A). in this system, governments are stable
(B). Party indiscipline ends
(C). Election expenditure is less
(D). People easily choose their Prime Minister
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161. The real meaning of Public opinion is
(A). Exercise of franchise by the people
(B). Decision of majority
(C). Opposition of government
(D). That opinion which keeps the welfare of the community in mind
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162. Maurice Duverger gave the following theory of political parties
(A). Two-party system
(B). Four fold classification based on organisation
(C). Multiparty System
(D). Coalition System
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163. In which of the following two party system is found
(A). India
(B). France
(C). United States of America
(D). Switzerland
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164. A pressure group is different from a political party because
(A). It does not participate in the election
(B). It promotes professional interest
(C). It does not consolidate public opinion
(D). Does not propagate any policy
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165. Pressure Groups in America, generally use which of the following methods
(A). Strike
(B). Lobby
(C). Confinement
(D). Peaceful demonstration
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166. Who among the following supported partyless democracy
(A). Mahatama Gandhi
(B). M. N. Roy
(C). Ambedkar
(D). Vinoba Bhave
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167. In which of the following there is oneparty system
(A). Japan
(B). Germany
(C). China
(D). Nepal
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168. Who among the following propounded the juristic concept of sovereignty
(A). Bodin
(B). Locke
(C). Austin
(D). Laski
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169. According to Hegal the State has emerged in the following stages
(A). Individual, Family, State
(B). Society, City-State, State
(C). Family, City-State, State
(D). Family, Civil Society, State
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170. Which limitation has been accepted by Bodin on sovereignty
(A). Laws of representation
(B). Natural and Divine Laws
(C). Laws of human rights
(D). Rules related to international proposals
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171. On what basis citizenship is different from concept of subject
(A). Rights
(B). Obedience
(C). Duties
(D). Patriotism
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172. Foreigner and citizen are distinguished, because following is possessed by the citizen and not foreigner
(A). Duties
(B). Responsibility
(C). Political Rights
(D). Privileges
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173. Which of the following is not true regarding participatory democracy
(A). Active democratic processes
(B). Decentralization of powers
(C). Transparency and responsibility
(D). Limited sphere of the State
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174. Changes in boundaries in America to ascertain benefit for the ruling party is
(A). Filibuster
(B). Jerrymandering
(C). Gilotine
(D). Log Rolling
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175. Which method of representation was developed by Thomas Hare
(A). Proportional Representation
(B). Territorial Representation
(C). Functional Representation
(D). Limited Voting
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176. Which Act gave separate electorate to Muslims in India
(A). Act of 1909
(B). Act of 1919
(C). Act of 1935
(D). None of the above
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177. Which of the following has more number of schedule tribes
(A). Rajasthan
(B). Gujrat
(C). Jharkhand
(D). West Bengal
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178. When was the Rio Earth Summit for environment protection held
(A). June, 1972
(B). July, 1984
(C). June, 1992
(D). July, 1994
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179. National conference is the regional party of which State
(A). Andhra Pradesh
(B). Tamil Nadu
(C). Maharashtra
(D). Jammu-Kashmir
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180. What is the main objective of Game Theory
(A). To choose the right option to resolve problems in an environment of continuous struggle
(B). to take decisions on the basis of research
(C). to take decisions on moral grounds
(D). to take decisions on the basis of consensus
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181. Which is not a characteristic of structural functional analysis
(A). Study of whole political system as unit of analysis
(B). Functional interdependence of diverse structures
(C). to determine the process of consensus for decision making
(D). Recognition of functional and dysfunctional structures
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182. Who is related to the Input-output analysis
(A). Lasswell
(B). David Easton
(C). Bentley
(D). Charles Mariam
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183. Who consider imperialism as the last stage of capitalism
(A). Individualists
(B). Idealists
(C). Utilitarianists
(D). Marxists
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184. By which amendment voting age has been reduced from 21 years to 18 years in India
(A). 60th amendment
(B). 61st amendment
(C). 72nd amendment
(D). 73rd amendment
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185. What is the percentage of female literacy according to the 2001 census
(A). 30.5%
(B). 40.2%
(C). 51%
(D). 53.7%
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186. Which criteria has been adopted by the Mandal Commission to determine backward classes in India
(A). Social, Economic, Political and Educational
(B). Social, Economic and Educational
(C). Economic, Educational and Cultural
(D). Geographical, Economic and Social
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187. Which article of the Indian Constitution has declared untouchability to be punishable by law
(A). Article 17
(B). Article 19
(C). Article 21
(D). Article 24
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188. What did Rousseau support
(A). Legal Sovereignty
(B). Popular Sovereignty
(C). Political Sovereignty
(D). Individual Sovereignty
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189. Which is the correct stages of progress in Locke's Political Philosophy
(A). Civil Society - Contract - State of Nature
(B). Contract - State of Nature - Civil Society
(C). State of Nature - Contract - Civil Society
(D). Contract - Civil Society - State of Nature
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190. Who consider State to be an organization of organizations
(A). Socialists
(B). Federalists
(C). Pluralists
(D). Facists
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191. Where has the earliest example of direct democracy been found
(A). Sparta
(B). Athens
(C). China
(D). Switzerland
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192. Most Political parties in the third world countries are
(A). incompetent for political propaganda
(B). based on principles
(C). Organised around an important personality
(D). Decentralise in organisation
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193. Who propounded the Realist Theory of International Politics
(A). Morganthau
(B). Almond
(C). Easton
(D). MacIver
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194. Where was the institution of 'Ombudsman' first constituted
(A). Holland
(B). Belgium
(C). Norway
(D). Sweden
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195. Which of the following is not a hindrance in the path of democracy in India
(A). Lack of Education
(B). Economic Disparity
(C). Independence of news papers
(D). Lack of organized public opinion
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196. Which commission was set up to investigate the Mumbai riots of 1992-93
(A). Sri Krishna Commission
(B). Nanavati Commission
(C). Mukherjee Commission
(D). U. C. Banerjee Commission
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197. When was the National Womens' Commission established in India
(A). 1978
(B). 1984
(C). 1992
(D). 2000
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198. Among the following who was not an election commissioner
(A). M. S. Gill
(B). Sabyasachi Mukherjee
(C). Sukumar Rai
(D). T. S. Krishna Murthy
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199. Which is not a source of revenue of the municipal corporation
(A). Local Taxes
(B). Income Tax
(C). Grants by Central Government
(D). Grants by State Government
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200. By which amendment efforts have been made to control political defections in India
(A). 42nd Amendment
(B). 46th Amendment
(C). 52nd Amendment
(D). 64ok¡ la'kks/ku 64th Amendment
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