SSC Solved Question Paper haminpur.com
(A). Medal : Decoration
(B). Bronze : Medal
(C). Scarf : Dress
(D). Window : House
Right Answer: A
2. AL : CN :: DA:?
(A). BL
(B). AA
(C). HR
(D). FC
Right Answer: D
3. ABC : ZYX :: CBA :?
(A). XYZ
(B). BCA
(C). YZX
(D). XZY
Right Answer: A
4. AZBY : ZAYB :: CXDW :?
(A). AYBZ
(B). EVFU
(C). BYAZ
(D). XCWD
Right Answer: D
5. 25:81 ::36:?
(A). 121
(B). 93
(C). 65
(D). 103
Right Answer: A
6. Black : White: : up :?
select the related word/letters/ number from the given
alternatives.
(A). Opposite
(B). Disappointment
(C). Wall
(D). Down
Right Answer: D
7. Book : Author: : Statue :?
select the related word/letters/ number from the given
alternatives.
(A). Mason
(B). Painter
(C). Sculptor
(D). Calligrapher
Right Answer: C
8. 292: 146: : 582 :?
select the related word/letters/ number from the given
alternatives.
(A). 272
(B). 286
(C). 291
(D). 292
Right Answer: C
9. 6:18::4:?_
select the related word/letters/ number from the given
alternatives.
(A). 10
(B). 8
(C). 6
(D). 4
Right Answer: B
10. select the one which is different from the other three
responses
(A). Eye
(B). Hand
(C). Nose
(D). Ear
Right Answer: A
11. select the one which is different from the other three
responses
(A). A
(B). O
(C). I
(D). N
Right Answer: D
12. select the one which is different from the other three
responses
(A). MNP
(B). PQS
(C). WXZ
(D). GHK
Right Answer: D
13. select the one which is different from the other three
Responses
(A). 4
(B). 25
(C). 146
(D). 625
Right Answer: C
14. select the one which is different from the other three
Responses
(A). 32-42
(B). 48-58
(C). 96-106
(D). 86-78
Right Answer: D
15. select the one which is different from the other three
responses
(A). Grapes
(B). Pomegranate
(C). Cardamom
(D). Mango
Right Answer: C
16. select the one which is different from the other three
responses
(A). water
(B). pool
(C). lake
(D). pond
Right Answer: A
17. select the one which is different from the other three
responses
(A). 58-85
(B). 96-69
(C). 38-83
(D). 47-73
Right Answer: D
18. select the one which is different from the other three
responses
(A). DABC
(B). PMNO
(C). ZWXY
(D). IDEF
Right Answer: D
19. Arrange the following words according to
English Dictionary.
(a) slunk (b) slung
(c) slump (d) slum
(A). (d), (c) , (b), (a)
(B). (c) , (b), (d), (a)
(C). (c), (a), (d), (b)
(D). (a), (b), (c), (d)
Right Answer: D
20. which one of the given responses would be a meaningful
order of the following words in ascending order ?
(a) Plant (b) Food (c) Seed (d) Leaf (e) fruit
(A). (e), (d), (c), (b), (a)
(B). (c), (b), (d), (e), (a)
(C). (c), (a), (d), (e), (b)
(D). (a), (c), (e), (d), (b)
Right Answer: A
21. which one of the given responses would be a meaningful
order of the following words in ascending order ?
(a) Gold (b) Silver (c) Platinum (d) Diamond
(A). (d), (a), (b), (c)
(B). (c), (d), (a), (b)
(C). (b), (a), (c), (d)
(D). (a), (b), (c), (d)
Right Answer: C
22. Which one set of letters when sequentially
placed at the gaps in the given letter series -
shall complete it ?
d _ n _ _ _ nndm _n
(A). ndmnm
(B). mdnmn
(C). mndmn
(D). dmnnm
.
Right Answer: C
23. choose the correct alternative from the given ones that
will complete the series
9,16, 25, 36, ?, 64
(A). 56
(B). 49
(C). 80
(D). 72
Right Answer: B
24. choose the correct alternative from the given ones that
will complete the series
3,5,8,13,21,34,55,?.
(A). 34
(B). 55
(C). 21
(D). 89
Right Answer: D
25. choose the correct alternative from the given ones that
will complete the series
AZBY C ??
(A). XD
(B). WE
(C). DX
(D). EW.
Right Answer: A
26. choose the correct alternative from the given ones that
will complete the series
YXW, UTS, QPO, MLK, ?
(A). LMN
(B). JIH
(C). KJI
(D). IHG
Right Answer: D
27. Find the wrong number in the given series.
4131, 1377, 461, 153, 51
(A). 461
(B). 153
(C). 1377
(D). 51
Right Answer: A
28. A prisoner introduced a boy who came to
visit him to the jailor as “Brothers and
sisters I have none, he is my father’s son’s
son”. Who is the boy ?
(A). Nephew
(B). Son
(C). Cousin
(D). Uncle
Right Answer: B
29. A group of alphabets are given with each being assigned a number. These have to be unscrambled into a meaningful word and correct order of letters may be indicated from the given responses.
(A). 5,1,2,6,3,4
(B). 2,3,4,5,1,6
(C). 3,4,2,5,6,1
(D). 5,6,1,3,4,2
Right Answer: A
30. If ‘LIBERALIZATION’ is coded as 3425613 4918470, then ‘AERATION’ can be coded as
(A). 15168470
(B). 15186471
(C). 15618470
(D). 51618471
Right Answer: C
31. Akhilesh is taller than Sheebu. Aman is not as tall as Akhilesh but is taller than Tejinder. Sheebu is also not as tall as Aman but is taller than Tejinder. Who is the tallest?
(A). Akhilesh
(B). Sheebu
(C). Aman
(D). Tejinder
Right Answer: A
32. From the given alternatives, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word?
EMBOSSMENT
(A). BOSS
(B). TOMB
(C). STEM
(D). MATS
Right Answer: D
33. Some equations are solved on the basis of a certain system. On the same basis, find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation
6 × 8 × 2 = 268, 1 × 2 × 3 = 312, 9 × 7 × 5 = ?
(A). 957
(B). 579
(C). 795
(D). 597
Right Answer: D
34. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace * signs and to balance the given equation.
(A). + ÷ = ÷
(B). × – + =
(C). + – = ÷
(D). – + = ÷
Right Answer: B
35. If REPUBLIC can be written as CRIELPBU, then how CULCUTTA can be written ?
(A). ACTUTLUC
(B). UEPUEAA
(C). NHENHJJS
(D). ATTUCLUC
Right Answer: A
36. Which of the following interchange of signs would make the given equation correct ?
(A). ÷ and ×
(B). 6 and 7
(C). + and +
(D). 12 and 3.
Right Answer: C
37. select e missing number from the given ponses
14 22 37
04 06 03
05 03 05
61 135 ?
(A). 120
(B). 112
(C). 116
(D). 555
Right Answer: C
38. select e missing number from the given ponses
64 25 81
36 49 16
14 12 ?
(A). 13
(B). 26
(C). 97
(D). 15
Right Answer: A
39. Raman starts walking in the morning facing the Sun. After sometime, he turned to the left. Later again he turned to his left. At what direction is Raman moving now ?
(A). East
(B). West
(C). South
(D). North.
Right Answer: B
40. Mohan travelled from point ‘A’ straight to ‘B’ at a distance of 8 m. He turned right and walked 4m, again turned to his right and walked 8 m. Finally he turned to his right and walked 3 m. How far he was from his starting point?
(A). 8m
(B). 3m
(C). 1 m
(D). 4 m
Right Answer: C
41. Two statements are given followed by four conclusions 1,11, and IV. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow from the given tatements. Indicate your answer.
Statements
1. All dogs are books
2. All books are pictures.
Conclusion
I. All dogs are pictures.
II. All books are dogs .
III. All pictures are dogs.
IV. Some pictures are books.
(A). Only I and IV follow
(B). Only II and III follow
(C). Either II or III follows
(D). Either II or IV follows
Right Answer: A
42. One statement is given followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given conclusions if any, follow from the given statement Indicate your answer.
(A). Only conclusion I follows.
(B). Only conclusion II follows.
(C). Both conclusions I and lI follow
(D). Neither conclusion I nor II follow
Right Answer: A
43. Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a row facing East, ‘C’ is between Wand ‘E’, ‘B’ is just to the right of ‘E’ but left of `D’, ‘F’ is not at the right end. Who is between ‘B’ and ‘C’ ?
(A). A
(B). D
(C). E
(D). F
Right Answer: C
44. A solid cube of 4 inches has been painted Red, Green, and Black on pair of opposite faces. It has been cut into one inch cubes. How many cubes have only one face painted that too only red ?
(A). 4
(B). 8
(C). 16
(D). 24
Right Answer: B
45. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?
(A). a
(B). b
(C). c
(D). d
Right Answer: D
46. Which of the answer figures is exactly the mirror image of the given figure, when the mirror is held on the line AB ?
Question Figure
(A). a
(B). b
(C). c
(D). d
Right Answer: B
47. Which one of the following diagrams best depicts the relationship among Fishes, Snakes and Birds
(A).
(B).
(C).
(D).
Right Answer: D
48. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g. : ‘F’ can be represented by 01, 13, 32, etc. and ‘N’ can be represented by 57, 69, 95, etc. Identify theset for the word PEN.
(A). 66, 30, 95
(B). 85, 00, 95
(C). 86, 00, 95
(D). 65, 00, 95
Right Answer: B
49. Select the answer figure in which the question figure is hidden/ embedded.
(A). a
(B). b
(C). c
(D). d
Right Answer: C
50. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will paper when opened?
(A). a
(B). b
(C). c
(D). d
Right Answer: D
51. Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
(A). with
(B). over
(C). on
(D). round
Right Answer: C
52. Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
(A). avidly
(B). admiringly
(C). thoughtfully
(D). earnestly
Right Answer: A
53. Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
(A). chance
(B). luck
(C). possibility
(D). occasion
Right Answer: A
54. Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
(A). group
(B). herd
(C). swarm
(D). flock
Right Answer: B
55. Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
(A). ready
(B). mature
(C). ripe
(D). advanced
Right Answer: C
56. In the following questions choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given words
ENORMOUS
(A). Soft
(B). Average
(C). Tiny
(D). Weak
Right Answer: C
57. In the following questions choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given words
COMMISSIONED
(A). Started
(B). Closed
(C). Finished
(D). Terminated
Right Answer: D
58. In the following questions choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given words
ARTIFICIAL
(A). Red
(B). Natural
(C). Truthful
(D). Solid
Right Answer: B
59. In the following questions choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given words
EXODUS
(A). Influx
(B). Home-coming
(C). Return
(D). Restoration
Right Answer: A
60. In the following questions choose the word which is the exact OPPOSITE of the given words
RELINQUISH
(A). Abdicate
(B). Renounce
(C). Possess
(D). Deny
Right Answer: C
61. Some proverbs/idioms are given below together with their meanings. Choose the correct meaning of proverb/idiom, If there is no correct meaning given, E (i.e.) 'None of these' will be the answer.
To make clean breast of
(A). To gain prominence
(B). To praise oneself
(C). To confess without of reserve
(D). To destroy before it blooms
Right Answer: C
62. Some proverbs/idioms are given below together with their meanings. Choose the correct meaning of proverb/idiom, If there is no correct meaning given, E (i.e.) 'None of these' will be the answer.
To keeps one's temper
(A). To become hungry
(B). To be in good mood
(C). To preserve ones energy
(D). To be aloof from
Right Answer: B
63. Some proverbs/idioms are given below together with their meanings. Choose the correct meaning of proverb/idiom, If there is no correct meaning given, E (i.e.) 'None of these' will be the answer.
To catch a tartar
(A). To trap wanted criminal with great difficulty
(B). To catch a dangerous person
(C). To meet with disaster
(D). To deal with a person who is more than one's match
Right Answer: B
64. Some proverbs/idioms are given below together with their meanings. Choose the correct meaning of proverb/idiom, If there is no correct meaning given, E (i.e.) 'None of these' will be the answer.
To drive home
(A). To find one's roots
(B). To return to place of rest
(C). Back to original position
(D). To emphasise
Right Answer: D
65. Some proverbs/idioms are given below together with their meanings. Choose the correct meaning of proverb/idiom, If there is no correct meaning given, E (i.e.) 'None of these' will be the answer.
To have an axe to grind
(A). A private end to serve
(B). To fail to arouse interest
(C). To have no result
(D). To work for both sides
Right Answer: A
66. Find the correctly spelt words.(solve as per thedirection given above)
(A). Efficient
(B). Treatmeant
(C). Beterment
(D). Employd
Right Answer: A
67. Find the correctly spelt words.(solve as per thedirection given above)
(A). Foreign
(B). Foreine
(C). Fariegn
(D). Forein
Right Answer: A
68. Find the correctly spelt words.(solve as per thedirection given above)
(A). Ommineous
(B). Omineous
(C). Ominous
(D). Omenous
Right Answer: C
69. Find the correctly spelt words.(solve as per thedirection given above)
(A). Pessenger
(B). Passenger
(C). Pasanger
(D). Pesanger
Right Answer: B
70. Find the correctly spelt words.(solve as per thedirection given above)
(A). Benefitted
(B). Benifited
(C). Benefited
(D). Benefeted
Right Answer: C
71. Which of phrases given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold type to make the grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is, mark 'E' as the answer.
(A). has done
(B). did
(C). does
(D). had done
Right Answer: C
72. Which of phrases given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold type to make the grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is, mark 'E' as the answer.You need not come unless you want to.
(A). You don't need to come unless you want to
(B). You come only when you want to
(C). You come unless you don't want to
(D). You needn't come until you don't want to
Right Answer: A
73. Which of phrases given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold type to make the grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is, mark 'E' as the answer.There are not many men who are so famous that they are frequently referred to by their short names only
(A). initials
(B). signatures
(C). pictures
(D). middle names
Right Answer: A
74. Which of phrases given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold type to make the grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is, mark 'E' as the answer.The man to who I sold my house was a cheat.
(A). to whom I sell
(B). to who I sell
(C). who was sold to
(D). to whom I sold
Right Answer: D
75. Which of phrases given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold type to make the grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is, mark 'E' as the answer.They were all shocked at his failure in the competition.
(A). were shocked at all
(B). had all shocked at
(C). had all shocked by
(D). had been all shocked on
Right Answer: E
76.
(A). After being driven to the museum, Professor Kumar was dropped at his hotel.
(B). Professor Kumar was being driven dropped at his hotel.
(C). After she had driven Professor Kumar to the museum she had dropped him at his hotel.
(D). After she was driven Professor Kumar to the museum she had dropped him at his hotel.
Right Answer: A
77.
(A). I remember I was taken to the museum by my sister.
(B). I remember being taken to the museum by my sister.
(C). I remember myself being taken to the museum by my sister.
(D). I remember taken to the museum by my sister.
Right Answer: B
78.
(A). Who has been created this mess?
(B). By whom has this mess been created?
(C). By whom this mess is being created?
(D). By whom is this mess being created?
Right Answer: D
79.
(A). Every morning I was greeted cheerfully.
(B). I am greeted cheerfully by them every morning.
(C). I am being greeted cheerfully by them every morning.
(D). Cheerful greeting is done by them every morning to me.
Right Answer: B
80.
(A). Tea is being grown in Darjeeling.
(B). Let the tea be grown in Darjeeling.
(C). Tea is grown in Darjeeling.
(D). Tea grows in Darjeeling.
Right Answer: C
81. Choose the correct spelling?
(A). Comitee
(B). Commitee
(C). Comittee
(D). Committee
Right Answer: D
82. Choose the correct spelling?
(A). Necesary
(B). Necessary
(C). Necesarry
(D). Neccessary
Right Answer: B
83. Choose the correct spelling?
(A). Tantitive
(B). Tentitive
(C). Tentaitive
(D). Tentative
Right Answer: D
84. Choose the correct spelling?
(A). Temperature
(B). Tempereture
(C). Tamperature
(D). Tampereture
Right Answer: A
85. Choose the correct spelling?
(A). Draut
(B). Drought
(C). Drout
(D). Drougt
Right Answer: B
86.
(A). Lean
(B). Gaunt
(C). Emaciated
(D). Obese
Right Answer: D
87.
(A). Limited
(B). Small
(C). Little
(D). Short
Right Answer: D
88.
(A). Misappropriate
(B). Balance
(C). Remunerate
(D). Clear
Right Answer: A
89.
(A). Opening
(B). Stodge
(C). End
(D). Past tense of go
Right Answer: A
90.
(A). Common
(B). Ridiculous
(C). Dignified
(D). Petty
Right Answer: C
91. In each question below, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled P,Q,R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence.
When he
| P : | did not know |
| Q : | he was nervous and |
| R : | heard the hue and cry at midnight |
| S : | what to do |
The Proper sequence should be:
(A). RQPS
(B). QSPR
(C). SQPR
(D). PQRS
Right Answer: A
92. In each question below, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled P,Q,R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence.
It has been established that
| P : | Einstein was |
| Q : | although a great scientist |
| R : | weak in arithmetic |
| S : | right from his school days |
The Proper sequence should be:
(A). SRPQ
(B). QPRS
(C). QPSR
(D). RQPS
Right Answer: B
93. In each question below, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled P,Q,R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence.
Then
| P : | it struck me |
| Q : | of course |
| R : | suitable it was |
| S : | how eminently |
The Proper sequence should be:
(A). SPQR
(B). QSRP
(C). PSRQ
(D). QPSR
Right Answer: C
94. In each question below, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled P,Q,R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence.
I read an advertisement that said
| P : | posh, air-conditioned |
| Q : | gentleman of taste |
| R : | are available for |
| S : | fully furnished rooms |
The Proper sequence should be:
(A). PQRS
(B). PSRQ
(C). PSQR
(D). SRPQ
Right Answer: B
95. In each question below, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled P,Q,R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence.
Since the beginning of history
| P : | have managed to catch |
| Q : | the Eskimos and Red Indians |
| R : | by a very difficulty method |
| S : | a few specimens of this aquatic animal |
The Proper sequence should be:
(A). QRPS
(B). SQPR
(C). SQRP
(D). QPSR
Right Answer: D
96. In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentence are given in the begining. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.
S1:In the middle of one side of the square sits the Chairman of the committee, the most important person in the room.
P:For a committee is not just a mere collection of individuals.
Q:On him rests much of the responsibility for the success or failure of the committee.
R:While this is happening we have an opportunity to get the 'feel' of this committe.
S:As the meeting opens, he runs briskly through a number of formalities.
S6:From the moment its members meet, it begins to have a sort nebulous life of its own.The Proper sequence should be:
(A). RSQP
(B). PQRS
(C). SQPR
(D). QSRP
Right Answer: D
97. In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentence are given in the begining. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.
S1:A force of exists between everybody in the universe.
P:Normally it is very small but when the one of the bodies is a planet, like earth, the force is considerable.
Q:It has been investigated by many scientists including Galileo and Newton.
R:Everything on or near the surface of the earth is attracted by the mass of earth.
S:This gravitational force depends on the mass of the bodies involved.
S6:The greater the mass, the greater is the earth's force of attraction on it. We can call this force of attraction gravity.The Proper sequence should be:
(A). PRQS
(B). PRSQ
(C). QSRP
(D). QSPR
Right Answer: D
98. In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentence are given in the begining. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.
S1:Calcutta unlike other cities kepts its trams.
P:As a result there horrendous congestion.
Q:It was going to be the first in South Asia.
R:They run down the centre of the road
S:To ease in the city decided to build an underground railway line.
S6:The foundation stone was laid in 1972. In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentence are given in the begining. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.The Proper sequence should be:
(A). PRSQ
(B). PSQR
(C). SQRP
(D). RPSQ
Right Answer: D
99. In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentence are given in the begining. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.
S1:For some time in his youth Abraham Lincoln was manager for a shop.
P:Then a chance Customer would come.
Q:Young Lincoln way of keeping shop was entirely unlike anyone else's
R:Lincoln would jump up and attend to his needs and then revert to his reading.
S:He used to lie full length on the counter of the shop eagerly reading a book.
S6:Never before had Lincoln had so much time for reading as had then.The Proper sequence should be:
(A). SRQP
(B). QSPR
(C). SQRP
(D). QPSR
Right Answer: B
100. In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentence are given in the begining. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.
S1:All the land was covered by the ocean.
P:The leading god fought the monster, killed it and chopped its body in to two halves.
Q:A terrible monster prevented the gods from separating the land from the water.
R:The god made the sky out of the upper part of the body and ornamented it with stars.
S:The god created the earth from the lower part, grew plants on it and populated it with animals.
S6:The god moulded the first people out of clay according to his own image and mind.The Proper sequence should be:
(A). PQRS
(B). PQSR
(C). QPSR
(D). QPRS
Right Answer: D
101. Evaluate :(2.39)- (1.61) 2.39 - 1.61
(A). 2
(B). 4
(C). 6
(D). 8
Right Answer: C
102. What decimal of an hour is a second ?
(A). 0025
(B). 0256
(C). 00027
(D). 000126
Right Answer: B
103. The value of (0.96)(0.1) is:(0.96)+ 0.096 + (0.1)>
(A). 0.86
(B). 0.95
(C). 0.97
(D). 1.06
Right Answer: C
104. The value of 0.1 x 0.1 x 0.1 + 0.02 x 0.02 x 0.02 is: 0.2 x 0.2 x 0.2 + 0.04 x 0.04 x 0.04
(A). 0.0125
(B). 0.125
(C). 0.25
(D). 0.5
Right Answer: A
105. If 2994 ½ 14.5 = 172, then 29.94½ 1.45 = ?
(A). 0.172
(B). 1.72
(C). 17.2
(D). 172
Right Answer: B
106. A train running at the speed of 60 km/hr crosses a pole in 9 seconds. What is the length of the train?
(A). 120 metres
(B). 180 metres
(C). 324 metres
(D). 150 metres
Right Answer: D
107. A train 125 m long passes a man, running at 5 km/hr in the same direction in which the train is going, in 10 seconds. The speed of the train is:
(A). 45 km/hr
(B). 50 km/hr
(C). 54 km/hr
(D). 55 km/hr
Right Answer: B
108. The length of the bridge, which a train 130 metres long and travelling at 45 km/hr can cross in 30 seconds, is:
(A). 200 m
(B). 225 m
(C). 245 m
(D). 250 m
Right Answer: C
109. Two trains running in opposite directions cross a man standing on the platform in 27 seconds and 17 seconds respectively and they cross each other in 23 seconds. The ratio of their speeds is:
(A). 1 : 3
(B). 3 : 2
(C). 3 : 4
(D). None of these
Right Answer: B
110. A train passes a station platform in 36 seconds and a man standing on the platform in 20 seconds. If the speed of the train is 54 km/hr, what is the length of the platform?
(A). 120 m
(B). 240 m
(C). 300 m
(D). None of these
Right Answer: B
111. A can finish a work in 18 days and B can do the same work in 15 days. B worked for 10 days and left the job. In how many days, A alone can finish the remaining work?
(A). 5
(B).
| 5 | 1 |
| 2 |
(C). 6
(D). 8
Right Answer: C
112. 4 men and 6 women can complete a work in 8 days, while 3 men and 7 women can complete it in 10 days. In how many days will 10 women complete it?
(A). 35
(B). 40
(C). 45
(D). 50
Right Answer: B
113. A and B can together finish a work 30 days. They worked together for 20 days and then B left. After another 20 days, A finished the remaining work. In how many days A alone can finish the work?
(A). 40
(B). 50
(C). 54
(D). 60
Right Answer: D
114. P can complete a work in 12 days working 8 hours a day. Q can complete the same work in 8 days working 10 hours a day. If both P and Q work together, working 8 hours a day, in how many days can they complete the work?
(A).
| 5 | 5* |
| 11 |
(B).
| 5 | 6 |
| 11 |
(C).
| 6 | 5 |
| 11 |
(D).
| 6 | 6 |
| 11 |
Right Answer: A
115. 10 women can complete a work in 7 days and 10 children take 14 days to complete the work. How many days will 5 women and 10 children take to complete the work?
(A). 3
(B). 5
(C). 7
(D). Cannot be determined
Right Answer: C
116. Alfred buys an old scooter for Rs. 4700 and spends Rs. 800 on its repairs. If he sells the scooter for Rs. 5800, his gain percent is:
(A).
| 4 | 4 | % |
| 7 |
(B).
| 5 | 5 | %* |
| 11 |
(C). 10%
(D). 12%
Right Answer: B
117. The cost price of 20 articles is the same as the selling price of x articles. If the profit is 25%, then the value of x is:
(A). 15
(B). 16
(C). 18
(D). 25
Right Answer: B
118. If selling price is doubled, the profit triples. Find the profit percent.
(A).
| 66 | 2 |
| 3 |
(B). 100
(C).
| 105 | 1 |
| 3 |
(D). 120
Right Answer: B
119. In a certain store, the profit is 320% of the cost. If the cost increases by 25% but the selling price remains constant, approximately what percentage of the selling price is the profit?
(A). 30%
(B). 70%
(C). 100%
(D). 250%
Right Answer: B
120. A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain 20%?
(A). 3
(B). 4
(C). 5
(D). 6
Right Answer: C
121.
Father is aged three times more than his son Ronit. After 8 years, he would be two and a half times of Ronit's age. After further 8 years, how many times would he be of Ronit's age?
(A). 2 times
(B).
| 2 | 1 | times |
| 2 |
(C).
| 2 | 3 | times |
| 4 |
(D). 3 times
Right Answer: A
122.
The sum of ages of 5 children born at the intervals of 3 years each is 50 years. What is the age of the youngest child?
(A). 4 years
(B). 8 years
(C). 10 years
(D). None of these
Right Answer: A
123.
A father said to his son, "I was as old as you are at the present at the time of your birth". If the father's age is 38 years now, the son's age five years back was:
(A). 14 years
(B). 19 years
(C). 33 years
(D). 38 years
Right Answer: A
124.
A is two years older than B who is twice as old as ages of A, B and C be 27, the how old is B?
(A). 7
(B). 8
(C). 9
(D). 10
Right Answer: D
125.
Present ages of Sameer and Anand are in the ratio of 5 : 4 respectively. Three years hence, the ratio of their ages will become 11 : 9 respectively. What is Anand's present age in years?
(A). 24
(B). 27
(C). 40
(D). Cannot be determined
Right Answer: A
126. In the first 10 overs of a cricket game, the run rate was only 3.2. What should be the run rate in the remaining 40 overs to reach the target of 282 runs?
(A). 6. 25
(B). 6. 5
(C). 6. 75
(D). 7
Right Answer: A
127. A family consists of two grandparents, two parents and three grandchildren. The average age of the grandparents is 67 years, that of the parents is 35 years and that of the grandchildren is 6 years. What is the average age of the family?
(A).
| 28 | 4 | years |
| 7 |
(B).
| 31 | 5 | years |
| 7 |
(C).
| 32 | 1 | years |
| 7 |
(D). None of these
Right Answer: B
128. A grocer has a sale of Rs. 6435, Rs. 6927, Rs. 6855, Rs. 7230 and Rs. 6562 for 5 consecutive months. How much sale must he have in the sixth month so that he gets an average sale of Rs. 6500?
(A). Rs. 4991
(B). Rs. 5991
(C). Rs. 6001
(D). Rs. 6991
Right Answer: A
129. The average of 20 numbers is zero. Of them, at the most, how many may be greater than zero?
(A). 0
(B). 1
(C). 10
(D). 19
Right Answer: D
130. The average weight of 8 person's increases by 2.5 kg when a new person comes in place of one of them weighing 65 kg. What might be the weight of the new person?
(A). 76 kg
(B). 76.5 kg
(C). 85 kg
(D). Data inadequate
Right Answer: C
131. From a group of 7 men and 6 women, five persons are to be selected to form a committee so that at least 3 men are there on the committee. In how many ways can it be done?
(A). 564
(B). 645
(C). 735
(D). 756
Right Answer: D
132. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'LEADING' be arranged in such a way that the vowels always come together?
(A). 360
(B). 480
(C). 720
(D). 5040
Right Answer: C
133. In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'CORPORATION' be arranged so that the vowels always come together?
(A). 810
(B). 1440
(C). 2880
(D). 50400
Right Answer: D
134. Out of 7 consonants and 4 vowels, how many words of 3 consonants and 2 vowels can be formed?
(A). 210
(B). 1050
(C). 25200
(D). 21400
Right Answer: C
135. In how many ways can the letters of the word 'LEADER' be arranged?
(A). 72
(B). 144
(C). 360
(D). 720
Right Answer: C
136. Find the greatest number that will divide 43, 91 and 183 so as to leave the same remainder in each case.
(A). 4
(B). 7
(C). 9
(D). 13
Right Answer: A
137. The H.C.F. of two numbers is 23 and the other two factors of their L.C.M. are 13 and 14. The larger of the two numbers is:
(A). 276
(B). 299
(C). 322
(D). 345
Right Answer: C
138. Six bells commence tolling together and toll at intervals of 2, 4, 6, 8 10 and 12 seconds respectively. In 30 minutes, how many times do they toll together ?
(A). 4
(B). 10
(C). 15
(D). 16
Right Answer: D
139. Let N be the greatest number that will divide 1305, 4665 and 6905, leaving the same remainder in each case. Then sum of the digits in N is:
(A). 4
(B). 5
(C). 6
(D). 8
Right Answer: A
140. The greatest number of four digits which is divisible by 15, 25, 40 and 75 is:
(A). 9000
(B). 9400
(C). 9600
(D). 9800
Right Answer: C
141. The cube root of .000216 is:
(A). .6
(B). .06
(C). 77
(D). 87
Right Answer: B
142.
A group of students decided to collect as many paise from each member of group as is the number of members. If the total collection amounts to Rs. 59.29, the number of the member is the group is:
(A). 57
(B). 67
(C). 77
(D). 87
Right Answer: C
143. The least perfect square, which is divisible by each of 21, 36 and 66 is:
(A). 213444
(B). 214344
(C). 214434
(D). 231444
Right Answer: A
144. 1.5625 = ?
(A). 1.05
(B). 1.25
(C). 1.45
(D). 1.55
Right Answer: B
145. If 35 + 125 = 17.88, then what will be the value of 80 + 65 ?
(A). 13.41
(B). 20.46
(C). 21.66
(D). 22.35
Right Answer: D
146. 3 pumps, working 8 hours a day, can empty a tank in 2 days. How many hours a day must 4 pumps work to empty the tank in 1 day?
(A). 9
(B). 10
(C). 11
(D). 12
Right Answer: D
147.
If a quarter kg of potato costs 60 paise, how many paise will 200 gm cost?
(A). 48 paise
(B). 54 paise
(C). 56 paise
(D). 72 paise
Right Answer: A
148. Running at the same constant rate, 6 identical machines can produce a total of 270 bottles per minute. At this rate, how many bottles could 10 such machines produce in 4 minutes?
(A). 648
(B). 1800
(C). 2700
(D). 10800
Right Answer: B
149. A fort had provision of food for 150 men for 45 days. After 10 days, 25 men left the fort. The number of days for which the remaining food will last, is:
(A). 29/1/5
(B). 37/1/4
(C). 42
(D). 54
Right Answer: C
150. 39 persons can repair a road in 12 days, working 5 hours a day. In how many days will 30 persons, working 6 hours a day, complete the work?
(A). 10
(B). 13
(C). 14
(D). 15
Right Answer: B
151. The present monetary system in India is managed by–
(A). Nationalised Banks
(B). The State Bank of India
(C). The Central Finance Ministry
(D). The Reserve Bank of India
Right Answer: D
152. What is a Multinational Company?
(A). A joint venture among more than two countries
(B). A company set up with foreign capital
(C). A company having operations in many countries.
(D). A company holding a monopoly over the sale of a certain commodity in several countries.
Right Answer: C
153. Explicit + Implicit Costs =
(A). Private Costs
(B). Accounting Costs
(C). Economic Costs
(D). Social Costs
Right Answer: C
154. Which of the following is not relevant to Human Resource Development ?
(A). Education
(B). Women and Child Development
(C). Caste System
(D). Youth Affairs and Sports
Right Answer: C
155. A Trade Cycle consists of –
(A). Three Phases
(B). Four Phases
(C). Five Phases
(D). Six Phases
Right Answer: B
156. The Khilafat Movement was organised to protest against–
(A). religious interference by the British
(B). Russian Revolution
(C). dismemberment of Turkey
(D). suppression of Pathans
Right Answer: C
157. Planning Commission was established in the year–
(A). 1980
(B). 1970
(C). 1950
(D). 1960
Right Answer: C
158. India witnessed single party domination till–
(A). 1962
(B). 1967
(C). 1971
(D). 1977
Right Answer: B
159. Which part of the Constitution of India has been described as the soul of the Constitution ?
(A). Fundamental Rights
(B). Directive Principles of State Policy
(C). Preamble
(D). Panchayats
Right Answer: C
160. Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution on–
(A). 15th August 1947
(B). 26th November 1949
(C). 26th January 1950
(D). 30th January 1948
Right Answer: B
161. The rustless Iron Pillar at Mehrauli (Delhi) was erected by the–
(A). Mauryas
(B). Kushans
(C). Guptas
(D). Satavahanas
Right Answer: C
162. The famous ‘Gayatri Mantra’ has been taken from–
(A). Rigveda
(B). Samaveda
(C). Yajurveda
(D). Atharvaveda
Right Answer: A
163. The Rajput King who was defeated by Babur in the battle of Khanwa was–
(A). Udai Singh
(B). Rana Pratap Singh
(C). Rana Sanga
(D). Rudra Deva
Right Answer: C
164. Who was the founder of the Ramakrishna Mission ?
(A). Sri Ramakrishna
(B). Swami Shraddhananda
(C). Keshab Chandra
(D). Swami Vivekananda
Right Answer: D
165. Who led the Mutiny at Kanpur ?
(A). Begum Hazrat Mahal
(B). Nana Sahib
(C). Tantia Tope
(D). Rani Laxmibai
Right Answer: B
166. Which ‘Water Body’ separates Andaman and Nicobar Islands ?
(A). Andaman Sea
(B). Bay of Bengal
(C). Ten Degree Channel
(D). Eleventh Degree Channel
Right Answer: C
167. State Highways are maintained by–
(A). Individual States
(B). Central Government
(C). Central and State Governments jointly
(D). Private parties selected by the State Governments
Right Answer: A
168. The first port developed after Independence was–
(A). Nhava Sheva
(B). Kandla
(C). New Mangalore
(D). Mumbai
Right Answer: B
169. The neighbouring country of India which has the smallest area is–
(A). Sri Lanka
(B). Bangladesh
(C). Bhutan
(D). Nepal
Right Answer: C
170. Kaziranga Wild Life Sanctuary is in the State of–
(A). Bihar
(B). Tamil Nadu
(C). Assam
(D). Kerala
Right Answer: C
171. Resin is extracted from–
(A). Papaya
(B). Pine
(C). Rubber
(D). Banyan
Right Answer: B
172. A common plant found in tropical rainforest is–
(A). Pine
(B). Eucalyptus
(C). Orchid
(D). Fir
Right Answer: C
173. Which of the following vitamins is necessary for clotting of blood ?
(A). K
(B). C
(C). A
(D). B
Right Answer: A
174. Influenza virus contains–
(A). RNA only
(B). DNA only
(C). Both RNA and DNA in equal proportion.
(D). DNA with very small proportion of RNA.
Right Answer: A
175. Lung fish is a link between–
(A). Amphibia and Birds
(B). Reptiles and Birds
(C). Amphibia and Reptiles
(D). Reptiles and Mammals
Right Answer: C
176. Green gland is the excretory organ of–
(A). Earthworm
(B). Cockroach
(C). Prawn
(D). House-fly
Right Answer: C
177. When pressure is increased, the boiling point of water–
(A). decreases
(B). increases
(C). remains the same
(D). depends on the volume of vapour formed
Right Answer: B
178. In the treatment of skin disease the radio isotope used is–
(A). Radio phosphorous
(B). Radio iodine
(C). Radio lead
(D). Radio cobalt
Right Answer: A
179. Rainbow has: (Choose incorrect statement)–
(A). red light as its outer-most colour towards sky
(B). red light as its inner-most colour towards earth
(C). violet light as its inner-most colour towards earth
(D). its curvature bent towards earth
Right Answer: B
180. A cyclist in circular motion should lean–
(A). Forward
(B). Backward
(C). Sideways towards the centre
(D). Sideway away from the centre
Right Answer: C
181. The monitor of a computer is–
(A). an input device
(B). an output device
(C). a storage device
(D). a processing device
Right Answer: B
182. ……….. is a collection of wires through which data is transmitted from one part of a computer to another part–
(A). Port
(B). Channel
(C). Bus
(D). Add on card
Right Answer: C
183. Amalgam is an alloy in which the base metal is–
(A). Copper
(B). Zinc
(C). Aluminium
(D). Mercury
Right Answer: D
184. The physical method commonly used to purify sea water is–
(A). Evaporation
(B). Sedimentation
(C). Filtration
(D). Distillation
Right Answer: A
185. The chemical name of ‘oil of vitriol’ is–
(A). Phosphoric acid
(B). Nitric acid
(C). Sulphuric acid
(D). Hydrochloric acid
Right Answer: C
186. Cathode rays are–
(A). Electromagnetic waves
(B). Radiations
(C). Stream of α-particles
(D). Stream of electrons
Right Answer: D
187. The National Park ‘Valley of Flowers’ lies in the State of–
(A). Kerala
(B). Himachal Pradesh
(C). Uttarakhand
(D). Jammu and Kashmir
Right Answer: C
188. Bhopal Gas Tragedy was caused by–
(A). Nitrogen
(B). Oxygen
(C). Methyl isocyanite
(D). Cyanide
Right Answer: C
189. The example of a secondary pollutant is–
(A). CFC (Chloro fluoro carbon)
(B). PAN (peroxy acetyl nitrate)
(C). CH4 (Methane)
(D). Cl2 (Chlorine)
Right Answer: B
190. In big cities, air pollution is mainly due to–
(A). burning of fossil fuel
(B). thermal power plant
(C). sewage
(D). suspended particles
Right Answer: A
191. The term ‘Let’ is associated with–
(A). Badminton
(B). Chess
(C). Hockey
(D). Football
Right Answer: A
192. The oral polio vaccine was discovered by–
(A). Alexander Flemming
(B). Jonas Salk
(C). Edmond Fischer
(D). Joseph E. Murray
Right Answer: B
193. Who among the following Nobel Laureates for their relentless struggle for peace, was awarded 2010 Nobel Prize?
(A). Barack H. Obama
(B). Liu Xiaobo
(C). Martti Ahtisaari
(D). Shirin Ebadi
Right Answer: B
194. The Umiam Hydel Project dam is located a few kilometres north of–
(A). Guwahati
(B). Shillong
(C). Kohima
(D). Imphal
Right Answer: B
195. The expenses of the Government of India are the highest on account of subsidy on–
(A). Fertilisers
(B). Oil
(C). LPG
(D). Food
Right Answer: D
196. In accordance with the directions of RBI, banking facilities are required to be provided at all places having population of more than 2000 by the end of–
(A). March 2015
(B). March 2014
(C). March 2013
(D). March 2012
Right Answer: C
197. Bodoland Territorial Council (BTC), an autonomous self-governing body, was created within the State of–
(A). Nagaland
(B). Meghalaya
(C). Assam
(D). Mizoram
Right Answer: C
198. ‘Simla Pact’ between India and Pakistan was signed in the year–
(A). 1965
(B). 1971
(C). 1972
(D). 2001
Right Answer: C
199. In which of the following States are Garo and Khasi tribes found ?
(A). Arunachal Pradesh
(B). Nagaland
(C). Meghalaya
(D). Mizoram
Right Answer: C
200. Manipur has common boundaries with the group of States of–
(A). Nagaland, Assam and Mizoram
(B). Nagaland, Meghalaya and Tripura
(C). Meghalaya, Mizorarn and Tripura
(D). Nagaland, Mizoram and Meghalaya