1. The theory of Level I and Level II intelligence was propounded by :
(A). Jensen
(B). Guilford
(C). Torrance
(D). Eysenck
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2. According to Adler, the master motive underlying human behaviour is :
(A). Sex
(B). Aggression
(C). Power
(D). Superiority
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3. Match List - I (Concept) with List - II (Theorist associated) and select the correct answer using the codes given below : List - I (Concept) List - II (Theorists associated)
(A). Aggressive instinct (i) Miller and Dollard (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(B). Needs hierarchy (ii) Freud (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(C). Achievement motivation (iii) Maslow (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(D). Frustration - aggressive hypothesis (iv) Mc Clelland Code : (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
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4. Which one of the following does not belong to this group ?
(A). Algorithmic method
(B). Heuristic method
(C). Hypothesis testing
(D). Mnemonics
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5. Trait theory of personality was developed by :
(A). Freud
(B). Kurt Lewin
(C). Eysenck
(D). Allport
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6. In Simon - Binet test of intelligence, a person of 40 years of C.A. has M.A. of 20 years. The person is intellectually :
(A). Below average
(B). Average
(C). Above average
(D). Genious
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7. Body temperature is controlled by :
(A). Thalamus
(B). Hypothalamus
(C). Cerebellum
(D). Cortex
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8. The motivation, emotion and other internal forces which underlie behaviour is known as :
(A). Personality dynamics
(B). Personality trait
(C). Personality type
(D). Multiple personality
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9. Similarity, Contrast and Contiguity are the laws of :
(A). Learning
(B). Psycho-physics
(C). Emotion
(D). Reasoning
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10. Weschler's adult intelligence scale measures :
(A). Abstract intelligence
(B). Global intelligence
(C). Social intelligence
(D). Emotional intelligence
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11. In conditioning experiments the extinction of conditioned response takes place due to :
(A). lack of motivation
(B). inhibition
(C). excitation
(D). absence of unconditioned stimulus
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12. Flight or fight reaction during fear or rage is controlled by :
(A). Central nervous system
(B). Adrenal glands
(C). Visual sense organs
(D). Pituitary glands
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13. According to Tulving the 3 systems of memory are :
(A). Immediate memory, Short - term memory and Long - term memory
(B). Working memory, Long - term memory and meta memory
(C). Procedural memory, semantic memory and episodic memory
(D). Iconic memory, echoic memory and secondary memory
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14. The place on the retina where the axons of all the ganglion cells come together to leave the eye is called the :
(A). fovea
(B). blind spot
(C). optic chiasm
(D). visual cortex
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15. The parts of the endocrine system that play a major role in preparing the body to deal with threats are :
(A). the thyroid and parathyroid
(B). the thyroid and the pituitary gland
(C). the adrenal cortex and the adrenal medulla
(D). the posterior pituitary and the anterior pituitary
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16. The occurrence of phi - phenomenon is observed in :
(A). Meditation
(B). Piece of music
(C). Violent mob
(D). Cinema
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17. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of motivational set ?
(A). Goal - directed behaviour, attainment of goal, drive, satisfaction
(B). Drive, satisfaction, attainment of goal, goal - directed behaviour
(C). Drive, goal - directed behaviour, attainment of goal, satisfaction
(D). Goal - directed behaviour, drive, satisfaction, attainment of goal
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18. Although the left and right hemispheres of the brain are specialized, they are normally in close communication through the :
(A). mid brain
(B). temporal lobe
(C). corpus callosum
(D). cerebellum
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19. Match the items in the columns given below : Column - I Column - II
(A). Iconic memory (i) Baddeley (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(B). Schema theory (ii) Muller and Pilzecker (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(C). Working memory (iii) Sperling (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(D). Consolidation theory (iv) Bart lett Code : (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
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20. In a normal healthy person under relaxed condition, the rate of respiration and heart beat per minute are usually :
(A). 10 and 32
(B). 18 and 72
(C). 72 and 22
(D). 50 and 100
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21. Norms are developed when a psychological test is :
(A). translated
(B). constructed
(C). standardized
(D). administered
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22. Some important tools of thinking are :
(A). Perception, learning and memory
(B). Objects, concepts and symbols
(C). Memory, symbols and perception
(D). Objects, learning and concepts
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23. Match the following terms and their definitions : I. Sensory projection areas II. Association areas III. Motor projection areas
(A). areas in the brain where response messages originate and then travel to muscles and glands.
(B). areas in the brain where messages from the sense receptors are registered.
(C). areas in the brain where incoming messages from the separate senses are combined into meaningful impressions and outgoing messages from the motor areas are integrated. Choose from the code : I II III
(D).
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24. Facial expression of emotion depicts :
(A). Instrumental behaviour
(B). Substitute behaviour
(C). Undesired behaviour
(D). Maladaptive behaviour
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25. In item analysis, item discrimination takes into account :
(A). Upper 50% and lower 50% of the subjects
(B). Upper 20% and lower 20% of the subjects
(C). Upper 27% and lower 27% of the subjects
(D). Upper 10% and lower 10% of the subjects
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26. Three basic elements of Guilford's model of intelligence :
(A). Learning, motivation and thinking
(B). Conditioning, Imagination and concept
(C). Operation, content and product
(D). Product, operation and learning
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27. When a researcher wants to validate a new test against an established theory he is aiming at :
(A). content validity
(B). concurrent validity
(C). construct validity
(D). factorial validity
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28. Emotional thoughts and actions are controlled by :
(A). Autonomic nervous system
(B). Limbic system
(C). Digestive system
(D). Temperament
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29. In problem solving task, the solver may use any of the following methods : 1 Algorithmic 2 Means - end analysis 3 Hypothesis testing 4 Heuristic Choose the correct order from the code :
(A). 1 2 3 4
(B). 2 3 4 1
(C). 3 1 2 4
(D). 1 3 4 2
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30. Item analysis of an attitude scale requires measures of :
(A). Item discrimination, Item reliability and Item validity
(B). Item analysis, Item validity and Item difficulty
(C). Item reliability, Item validity and Item difficulty
(D). Item validity, Item difficulty and Item discrimination
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31. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list : List - I List - II (EEG record) (State of the individual)
(A). Alpha (i) Deep Sleep (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(B). Beta (ii) Alert (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(C). Delta (iii) Emotional state (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(D). Theta (iv) Relaxed Code : (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
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32. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list : List - I List - II
(A). Simple concept (i) Joint presence of 2 or more features of objects or events (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(B). Conjunctive concept (ii) 0More than" or 0heavier than" aspect among objects or events (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(C). Disjunctive concept (iii) Presence of a single property in events or objects (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(D). Relational concept (iv) Any one of the several properties put the object or event in one category Code : (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
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33. When a test is applied to two equivalent groups of subjects and the 2 sets scores are correlated we get :
(A). Cross - validation
(B). Test - retest reliability
(C). Equivalent form reliability
(D). Rational equivalency reliability
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34. The distribution of emotional arousal and its effect on performance will depict a :
(A). S - shaped curve
(B). J - shaped curve
(C). U - shaped curve
(D). Inverted U - shaped curve
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35. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ? 1 Motivation is an expression of : Psychoanalytic approach unconscious wish 2 Motivation is a search for self-realization : Cognitive approach 3 Motivation comes into process because : Humanistic approach of perceptual defences 4 Motivation arises from internal : Homeostatic approach physiological imbalance Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :
(A). 1 and 4
(B). 2 and 3
(C). 1 and 3
(D). 2 and 4 Note : Go through the following passage carefully and select the correct answer of five (5) questions given below (Question no. 36 to 40) : PASSAGE Memory is a cognitive ability to encode, store and retreive information from the environment. According to information theory, the amount of information per item is simply the logarithm (to the base 2) of the number of choices. George Miller in 1956 suggested that human ability to process information is magical number 7±2. It is therefore possible to calculate the number of 'bits' of information that a subject can hold when he correctly reports 5 or 6 or 7 or 8 or 9 digits. For example, each digit is drawn from 10 equally likely alternatives and therefore each decimal digit contains 3.32 bits of information (23 32=10). Similarly each binary digit (0, 1) contains 1 bit of information (21=2). Each english alphabet contains 4.7 bits of information (24 7=26). Therefore from 'information theory' point of view, if the span of memory of a subject for decimal digit is 7, then he stores 3.32x7=27 bits of information approximately. 'Bit' which is contraction of 'binary digit' is the amount of information needed to distinguish between two equally likely alternatives. Thus N bits is the number of 'bits' required to distinguish among 2N equally likely alternatives. This measurement of information contained in any given stimulus was initially propounded by Shanon and Weaver.
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36. Memory span for digits is magicat number 7±2 was suggested by :
(A). E. Ebbinghaus
(B). D.E. Broadbent
(C). G. Miller
(D). L. Postman
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37. If the memory span for english alphabets of a subject is 6 letters, he can store :
(A). 6 bits of information
(B). 12 bits of information
(C). 18 bits of information
(D). 28 bits of information
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38. Measurement regarding the amount of information contained in a given stimulus was proposed by :
(A). Atkinson and shiffrin
(B). Shanon and weaver
(C). Craik and lockhart
(D). Tulving and watkins
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39. Linguists believe that there are approximately 1024 monosyllabic words in english language. From information theory point of view each word contains :
(A). 10 bits of information
(B). 12 bits of information
(C). 15 bits of information
(D). 20 bits of information
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40. 'Bit' being contraction of 'binary digit' 4 'bits' is the number of bits which distinguish 0 number of equally likely alternatives, where 0 is equal to :
(A). 8 Both and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of is true but (R) is false is false but (R) is true
(B). 16 Both
(C). 32
(D). 64 General instructions for question 40 to 50 : The following 10 items consist of two statements, one labelled the 'Assertion A' and the other labelled the 'Reason R'. 0ou are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if Assertion A and the Reason R are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer sheet accordingly. Codes :
Right Answer: